TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESSOPS TEST 2024 Verified Answers, Exams of Nursing

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TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESSOPS TEST 2024 Verified Answers Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition for a: - answer hazardous material When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination? - answer Time, distance, shielding A reference book intended as a guide to aid emergency responders to guide quickly and identify specific hazards during the initial phase is the: - answer DOT, Emergency Response Guidebook The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook are: - answer health and fire/explosion The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called: - answer protective actions The most important part of assessment is: - answer recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Which information should be provided during the notifications? - answer Container type Statement 1: CERCLA established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites. Statement 2: A trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified was established by CERCLA Statement 3: CERCLA is part of Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.120 - answer Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false Which of the package labels listed below indicates the highest radiation hazard? - answer Radioactive Yellow-III the normal location for the bill of lading is in the: - answer cab of the truck During an incident involving a train, where should you look for the shipping papers? - answer the conductor's possession using the human senses of smell or taste to determine the presence of a hazardous material is: - answer unreliable, unacceptable, and unsafe hazardous occupancies should be identified and evaluated: - answer during preincident planning Local emergency response personnel can gain valuable information if the _____ is utilized in preincident planning - answer Local Emergency Planning Committee Shipping papers are required to contain: - answer the hazardous classification according to DOT regulations When transporting hazardous materials, the shipping papers should contain: - answer hazard class of the material on a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the: - answer hazard class the DOT placarding system requires a vehicle carrying over 1001 pounds of corrosive display a _________ placard - answer white over black the DOT placarding system requires a vehicle carrying a nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored: - answer green a type of material that can be extremely toxic and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a - answer poison any material that, when taken into the body, is injurious to health is known as: - answer poisionous material in the NFPA 704 system of identification, the diamond-shaped placard used for fire hazard is colored: - answer red the NFPA lists ______ as the standard for identifying chemical hazards of materials at fixed facilities - answer 704 the the NFPA 704 system, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored - answer yellow a hazard class of 3, within the UN labeling system indicates a ____________ product - answer flammable/combustible liquid a substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels, would be labeled hazard class _______ under the UN/DOT labeling system - answer 5 a container of flammable solids would receive a UN label or placard with a hazardous classification number of: - answer 4 using the UN/DOT labeling system, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of: - answer 3 within the UN/DOT system, a container labeled with a hazard class 4 contains a: - answer flammable solid the NFPA 704 system indicates hazardous materials as: - answer potential hazards in using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of ________ would be considered the most dangerous - answer the sense of smell the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) signal word - Danger - represents: - answer high level of toxicity the least likely location for terrorists activity of the following choices is: - answer a remote gov't facility in a rural area according to the NFPA 704 system, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets? - answer 4, 4, 2 the primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) information is whether the facility: - answer has chemicals that are used in the workplace a document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazardous of a product is called: - answer the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the number _______ would be shown in the flammability quadrant of the NFPA 704 system for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur: - answer 2 a substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled _________ under the UN labeling system - answer 5 during a suspected terrorists event, warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are - answer secondary devices a tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the hazard class: - answer red, 3 ______ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents - answer a placard during the size up of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the: - answer flammability of the material substances that are living disease causing materials or are obtained from living organisms are called: - answer biological agents during transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the: - answer conductor the person responsible for control of the air-bill papers is the: - answer pilot shipping papers are referred to as _______ and usually stored ______, in air transport - answer air bill, in the cockpit which is a signal word found on pesticide labels? - answer Warning Which mode of transportation corresponds with a Waybill/Consist? - answer Rail Statement 2: the word WARNING is used on labeling for packages containing highly toxic materials Statement 3: the signal words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE are also displayed if package contents have a flash point below 80 degrees F - answer Statements 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false the manufacturing and labeling of pesticides is regulated by the: - answer Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) where are pipeline owners required to place pipeline markings? - answer at any place the underground pipeline crosses a mode of transportation which agency regulates pipelines that carry hazardous materials across state boarders, navigable waterways, and federal lands? - answer Department of Transportation (DOT) what organization provides an emergency call center for first responders at a hazmat emergency? - answer CHEMTREC Statement 1: if placards are clearly displayed on the transportation mode, shipping papers are not required Statement 2: if a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers Statement 3: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical amount and weight - answer statement 1 is false; statements 2 and 3 are true Statement 1: when carrying hazardous materials, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers Statement 2: Shipping papers may include a packing group number listed as I, II, or III Statement 3: the higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the cargo - answer Statements 1 and 2 are, statement 3 is false a dangerous cargo manifest may be located in the: - answer wheelhouse or bridge who is responsible for shipping papers when the mode of transportation is aircraft? - answer Pilot an air bill may be located in the: - answer cockpit who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading? - answer driver who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest? - answer captain or master the waybill/consist may be located with/in the: - answer engine a bill of lading may be located with/in the: - answer cab of the vehicle the definition of hazardous material is: - answer any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard Statement 2: blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals Statement 3: biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make and the onset of symptoms usually requires days to weeks - answer All 3 statements are true the acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents? - answer nerve agents blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and high-yield Explosive (CBRNE) classification? - answer Chemical given the product name, you can find the four-digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing the: - answer Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) which are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent? - answer loss of bladder control and vomiting using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, which is considered a chemical nerve agent? - answer V- agent/VX Statement 1: victims have lost control of their bowels - you suspect a nerve agent Statement 2: victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier - you suspect a biological agent Statement 3: victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses and difficulty breathing - you suspect a biological agent - answer Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false Statement 1: examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agent/VX Statement 2: the most toxic, least volatile nerve agent is V agent/VX Statement 3: nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapor pressure - answer Statements 1 and 2 are true; Statement 3 is false hazardous materials that would be classified and placarded class 9 during transportation include: - answer polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) Statement 1: the blue section of the ERG lists the shipping names of hazardous materials Statement 2: shipping names are always identical to the chemical names of materials Statement 3: it is important to know the proper spelling of the shipping name of a material before referencing the ERG - answer Statements 1 and 3 are true: Statement 2 is false which federal agency is involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes? - answer DOT the NFPA 704 system is designed for: - answer fixed facilities the DOT hazard class 1 consists of: - answer explosives the DOT hazard class 2 consists of: - answer gases the DOT hazard class 3 consists of: - answer flammable liquids the DOT hazard class 4 consists of: - answer flammable solids the DOT hazard class 5 consists of: - answer oxidizers the DOT hazard class 6 consists of: - answer poisons the DOT hazard class 7 consists of: - answer radioactive substances the recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a hazardous substance would be found in the ______ section of the ERG - answer orange one resource that deals with protective action distances involving toxic gas, is the: - answer DOT ERG book when using the table of isolation distances in the ERG, a large spill is defined as a quantity greater than: - answer 70 gallons on greater the recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is: - answer circular the statement: "people inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes: - answer shelter in place the general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are: - answer inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection the term - isolate hazard area or deny entry - means - answer keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area the term - shelter-in-place protection - means: - answer having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area Scene control at a terrorism incident incident may present unique challenges for the responders. in particular, responders must be aware that: - answer the terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. you should look first in the ERG for guidance in the: - answer yellow-boarded section which is a potential ignition source found at the scene of hazardous materials incidents? - answer radios and flashlights asphyxiation hazard: - answer can lead to suffocation the collection of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of: - answer law enforcement ______ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes - answer absorption the mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes: - answer surveying the incident to determine the identity of the material involved first responders trained to the awareness level have the ability to: - answer realize the need for additional resources and make the appropriate notificiations the isolation distance in the orange section of the ERG is for: - answer consideration for evacuation upon arrival to a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you learn it is carrying magnesium. you are unable to obtain the 4-digit ID number. where you should look first in the ERG for guidance? - answer in the blue-bordered material index section in the ERG, the first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the: - answer yellow and blue-bordered sections When using the ERG, the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide number is to: - answer go to the orange bordered section the lead agency during a terrorist attack is the: - answer federal bureau of investigation if you are initiating the IMS at a hazardous materials incident, the person assigned as the safety officer must be: - answer trained to the technician level the goal of an emergency decon procedure is to: - answer remove any threatening contamination as quickly as possible if a product with a vapor density of 1.6 escaped from its container, you would expect the product to: - answer collect in low-lying areas the best source of information on a specific hazardous materials is the: - answer MSDS when attempting to collect hazard information during an emergency incident, the responders could contact ________ for immediate information - answer CHEMTREC which is the correct regarding emergency decontamination? - answer it is required when immediate medical attention is required in order to determine whether the personal protective equipment provided is appropriate for defensive operations, the ERG should be consulted. the section in which this information would be found is colored: - answer orange you arrive on the scene of a vehicle accident involving a cargo tank truck carrying gasoline. the truck is leaking its product into a small lake. the driver of the truck gives you a MSDS on gasoline, which gives you a specific gravity of 0.8. with this information, you can predict that the product will: - answer remain on top of the water the active ingredients on a pesticide label will be: - answer listed by name a noninsulated, single-shell vessel illustrated below, which carries gases that have been liquified, is an: - answer MC 331 a cryogenic material would be carried in an: - answer MC 338 _________ radioactive materials can be packaged in small containers as well as those weighing over 100 tons? - answer Type B the shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a _______ packaging. - answer Type A the V-shaped carrier below depicts a ________ carrier: - answer dry bulk a carboy may be used for transporting materials containing: - answer corrosives viewed from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape, illustrated below, indicates what type of container - answer MC 306/DOT 406 the proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an: - answer MC 312/ DOT 412 pipeline markers contain information describing the: - answer owner/phone number/product a _________ tank has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated: - answer cryogenic a cryogenic liquid tank will have: - answer a double shell with insulation a rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a: - answer dedicated car if a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a ______ rail car - answer pressure tank a rail car with exposed fittings is considered to be a ________ car - answer nonpressure or low-pressure tank a tank car designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -130 degrees F and below is a: - answer cryogenic liquid tank car which information is required on a pipeline marker? - answer owner of the pipeline which is mandatory information found on a pesticide label? - answer EPA registration number which is a required signal word on a pesticide label? - answer warning when implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should: - answer be alert for secondary devices two complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident are: - answer crime scene considerations and possible secondary events above ground pressurized storage tanks are divided into two categories: - answer low-pressure and pressure these trailers contain several pressurized vessels ranging from 3000 to 6000 psi piping and are known as: - answer compressed gas tube trailers which is a characteristic of a compressed gas tube trailer? - answer the manifold or valve control box is enclosed at the rear a specialized intermodal tank container which transports gases in high-pressure cylinders (3000-5000) is known as a(n): - answer tube module/trailer a specialized intermodal tank container which carries refrigerated liquid gases, oxygen, or helium would be an example of: - answer cryogenic intermodal tanks/IM type 7 cryogenic liquid storage tanks are: - answer diverse in pressure ratings, with some as high as 300 psi and heavily insulated Statement 1: there are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship) Statement 2: cryogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers because they are considered to be too unstable for this type of shipment Statement 3: radioactive material containers are shipped in either type A or type B containers - answer statements 1 and 3 are true, statement 2 is false you have arrived on the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving pesticides. on one of the pesticide labels, you notice the statement "keep away from children." this statement is called the: - answer precautionary statement common hazards materials stored in nonbulk packages, referred to as bags, are: - answer fertilizers a railcar tanker with a stencil marking of DOT 111 is a(n): - answer non-pressurized railcar the products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: - answer flammable liquids the products that IM 102 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: - answer nonregulated materials the design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is: - answer 25.4 to 100 psi pneumatically unloaded hopper cars typically carry: - answer powdered materials a _______ is best defined as a tank-within-a-tank with a stainless steel inner tank supported within a strong outer tank, with insulation in the space between the inner and outer tank: - answer cryogenic liquid tank car what type of container is used to ship materials of radioactivity by air? - answer Type C packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as: - answer excepted which material is transported in industrial containers? - answer smoke detectors which exposure value could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures? - answer Threshold limit value/short- term exposure limit (TLV-STEL) the maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effects, best defines: - answer threshold limit value/time weighted average (TLV-TWA) gamma particles can be described as: - answer deadly radiation as it can pass through structural personal protective equipment beta particles can be described as: - answer ionizing radiation like x-rays the CHEMTREC organization is available _______ hours per day to provide information about ________. - answer 24, many chemicals a container labeled with a hazard class of 4 contains a(n): - answer flammable solid given the MSDS provided, in which section would signs and symptoms of exposure and routes of entry be found? - answer Section #3 given the provided MSDS, in what sections can you find info on precautions for safe handling to include release measures and personal protection measures? - answer 7 and 8 given the MSDS provided, identify the chemical abstract service (CAS) number. - answer 75-21-8 given the provided MSDS, in which sections would you find PPE and first aid procedures? - answer 4 and 8 given the provided MSDS, identify the boiling point of the chemical - answer 13 degrees C alpha particles can be described as: - answer particles with weight and mass which statement is true regarding neutron radiation? - answer they are highly penetrating which type of radiation has a physical mass but has no electrical charge? - answer neutron structural firefighting gear with self-contained breathing apparatus will protect responders from: - answer beta particles when contacting the CHEMTREC, the caller should be prepared to provide the: - answer type of container or vehicle CHEMTREC is able to provide assistance to responders if: - answer the name of the shipper or manufacturer is known CHEMTREC/CANUTEC can usually provide: - answer technical information when a pressurized tanker fails violently due to over- pressurizing, the phenomenon is called: - answer BLEVE ______ materials may cause severe chemical burns and extensive tissue damage on contact. - answer corrosive a _______ effect occurs at the point of contact with a hazardous substance. - answer local which substance would be classified as a chemical asphyxiant? - answer carbon monoxide vapors that attack the mucous membranes, such as the surfaces of the eyes, nose and throat, are considered: - answer irritants _______ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration - answer asphyxiants materials such as lithium, finely divided magnesium, sodium, and cesium are classified as: - answer water reactive ________ is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor: - answer flammable (explosive) range corrosiveness can be described as the: - answer measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance _______ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a value of 1.0 - answer specific gravity ______ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air. - answer flash point which is considered to be a breach in a metal container? - answer punctures in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is medium term. medium term means: - answer days, weeks, and months in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is short term. short term means: - answer minutes and hours in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. long term means: - answer years and generations all biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT hazard class: - answer 6 determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as: - answer vapor density a product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of: - answer specific gravity the hemispheric dispersion pattern is best described as: - answer a circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens are permanent and irreversible conditions known as: - answer chronic health hazards convulsants are best described as: - answer poisons that will cause an exposed individual to have seizures after repeated exposure, _________ will cause an allergic reaction. - answer sensitizers/allergens toxic gases, blood agents, such as arsine and cyanogen chloride, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and divison? - answer 2.3 which is considered a DOT hazard class 4 product? - answer flammable solid one type of hazardous material that is classified as DOT class 1 is: - answer explosives with a mass explosion hazard the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the ________ point. - answer flash vapor pressures of a substance at 100 degrees F - answer always higher than the same substance at 68 degrees F with DOT hazard class covers nerve agents used in chemical warfare? - answer DOT 6.1 in an emergency, responders can acquire a MSDS sheet from - answer manufacturer of the chemical the immediate concern when dealing with combustible liquid spills is to: - answer prevent ignition of the fuel most riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class: - answer 6.1 choking agents like _______ attack the lungs causing tissue damage. - answer phosgene a specific class of chemicals, called blood agents are highly toxic to the human body because they: - answer are chemical asphyxiants because they interfere with oxygen utilization materials such as benzene, asbestos, and arsenic are known as: - answer carcinogens which is a symptom of an irritant exposure? - answer burning sensation to eyes the _______ of a chemical is its ability to remain in the environment. - answer persistance one of the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires is: - answer carbon monoxide (CO) to contact the shipper for hazard and response information, a firefighter can obtain information number from: - answer the shipping papers a poison that can be harmful if inhaled, swallowed, absorbed or introduced into the body is known as: - answer toxic if available, which resource is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders' input, local data and leak info? - answer Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA) Which resource would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material within an endangered area when provided with local data and leak info? - answer Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA) Which resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area? - answer monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Hazmat Technicians are needed to operate this equipment in level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with: - answer a small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident if a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all: - answer ignition sources one of the guidelines from protecting against possible secondary devices is: - answer manage the scene with cordons, boundaries, and scene control zones what would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non-flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking? - answer inhalation the primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is: - answer explosion removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires: - answer the emergency decontamination process statement 1: remote shutoffs are usually well marked with an orange placard statement 2: remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the back door statement 3: on vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the rear of the cargo tank or behind the driver's door - answer statements 1 and 2 are false, statement 3 is TRUE a process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called: - answer absorption when determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the: - answer specific gravity of a material which statement is correct concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill - answer dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be: - answer defensive strategies identify the process of controlling fumes or vapors that are given off by flammable liquids - answer vapor suppression the taking of hazardous materials into the body through the undamaged skin and the eyes is called - answer absorption a way that personnel, PPE, apparatus, and tools become contaminated is by: - answer secondary contamination which statement about emergency decontamination is true? - answer it can be implemented without a formal decontamination area _______ is designed to remove contaminates that pose immediate threat to life - answer emergency decontamination statement 1: while emergency responders may have considerable experience with decon at hazmat incidents, performing decon at a terrorist may require some changes to the procedure statement 2: decontamination is performed at hazmat/WMD incidents to remove hazardous materials from all responders, victims, PPE, tools and equipment statement 3: everyone and everything in the hot zone is subject to contact with the hazardous material and can become contaminated - answer all three statements are true the zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points, is known as a _________ zone - answer hot/exclusion the area that exists just outside the hot/exclusion zone is known as the: - answer warm zone the __________ zone is in the area of highest known hazard - answer hot/exclusion one of the factors that can change the evacuation area is: - answer a change in wind direction which protective action must be taken during shelter in place protection? - answer close all windows what should responders do with runoff from emergency decontamination? - answer divert into an area where it can be treated and disposed of when sheltering people in place, the citizens should be directed to - answer close all heating, ventilation, and AC systems prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on - answer anticipated duration of the task which is a consideration when setting up an emergency decon area? - answer run off when dealing with a level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of: - answer large scale evacuation statement 1: the hot zone is the area immediately around the release statement 2: the warm zone includes the contains the decontamination area one the safety officer arrives on the scene, the IC should - answer have the SO review the incident action plan when determining the location of the command post, it is vital that - answer it is in a safe area level III incidents often require the technical expertise of ________ to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident - answer a specialist the person who advises the IC of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the - answer safety officer a level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from - answer a hazardous material response team at a hazardous materials emergency, the operations section serves the task of: - answer controlling the tactical portion of the incident the _________ is the location where coordination, control, and communications are centralized - answer command post at a hazardous materials incident, the SO's responsibilities include: - answer participating in preparation of an monitoring the safety plan the individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources describes the: - answer incident commander at a suspected terrorist incident, evidence collection is primarily the responsibility of - answer law enforcement who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a hazardous materials incident? - answer logistics section chief within the ICS, the optimum span of control is - answer 5:1 how often should a SCBA unit be inspected after it has been used - answer daily when responding to a potential hazardous material incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to - answer approach from uphill and upwind even if it requires a longer response time the first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is - answer isolation of the area and prevention of entry when operating at a hazmat scene, what is required when operating in a hot zone - answer utilization of a buddy system to minimize the physical limitations of PPE, a FF should - answer hydrate frequently respiratory protective equipment should be cleaned an inspected - answer after each use back-up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the __________ zone. - answer cold SCBA and supplied air respirators, are two types of - answer atmosphere supplied devices exposure to _______ materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite - answer cryogenic the most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is - answer chemical compatibility the highest level of protection, based on EPA guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is - answer level A the minimum level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(n)? - answer positive pressure SCBA which is a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure SCBA? - answer physical condition this suit is used where splashed may occur, but where respiratory hazards are minimal - answer level C statement 1: when decontamination and doffing of PPE occurs in a cold environment, the body can cool rapidly statement 2: wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to 240 times faster than dry clothing, which can lead to hypothermia statement 3: hypothermia, while serious, is not a true medical emergency - answer statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false which are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon? - answer remain isolated until deconned a vapor tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a: - answer level A heat stress is associated with: - answer muscle cramps in legs and abdomen what single item makes a level B ensemble different from the lower levels of PPE? - answer SCBA dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, are all signs of: - answer heat exhaustion heat stroke is associated with - answer hot, dry, red skin penetration can be described as - answer movement of material through closures heat ________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin - answer exhaustion symptoms of heat _________ include little or not sweating; hot, dry, red skin; deep, then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse - answer stroke when donning SCBA with a level A suit, the self-contained breathing apparatus is: - answer worn inside the PPE the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best describes _______ protection - answer level b the best protective material against a specific chemical is one that has a low _______ rate (if any) and a long ______ time - answer permeation, breakthrough the elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the material is called - answer breakthrough time the chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials best defines - answer permeation in order to safely estimate the chemical resistance of a particular garment, manufacturers supply - answer compatibility charts there is no assurance that once decon of chemical protective clothing is complete _____ has ceased - answer permeation chemical permeation rates are a result of - answer temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations _____ is the flow of a hazardous material through zippers, pinholes, or other material imperfections found in chemical protective clothing - answer penetration the physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use or ambient conditions defines - answer degredation standard structural FF ensemble including SCBA are adequate for which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) incidents? - answer beta radiation in dealing with biological agents, the minimum required protection is - answer level C the highest level of protection from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is - answer level A degradation can be described as - answer physical damage from a chemical a level A suit will protect the responder from ill effects from - answer vapors and gases to protect against radiological exposures a responder should - answer limit the time spent in a radiation hazard area physical stresses that can affect users of specialized protective clothing include - answer heat stress statement 1: a phase change vest consists of a method to maintain a consistent temp of 60 degrees statement 2: ice cooled vests may be recharged by freezing the vest ________ is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product - answer flaring another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called - answer flaring ________ is the most commonly used method for decontaminating personnel - answer dilution/washing the eight step process recommended for assessing a hazmat incident includes - answer hazard risk evaluation which principal characteristic of adsorption is true? - answer off gassing is reduced adsorption is the process of - answer adhering the contaminant to a surface a process in which a material is added to soak up a hazardous material to prevent enlargement or spread of the contaminated area is known as - answer adsorption when using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of - answer run-off contamination at a spill, defensive actions should include - answer diking or remote closing of a valve in some situations, it may be safe and acceptable for Operations-level responders to operate emergency remote shutoff valves on cargo tank trucks. this remote shut off on an Mc 306/DOT 406 will be located at the - answer left front corner which is a true statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs - answer they are usually well marked in red and in an easy-to-find location which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion? - answer the runoff may need to be contained