TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS, Exams of Safety and Fire Engineering

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TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition for a: - hazardous material When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination? - Time, distance, shielding A reference book intended as a guide to aid emergency responders to guide quickly and identify specific hazards during the initial phase is the: - DOT, Emergency Response Guidebook The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook are: - health and fire/explosion The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called: - protective actions The most important part of assessment is: - recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Which information should be provided during the notifications? - Container type Statement 1: CERCLA established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites. Statement 2: A trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified was established by CERCLA Statement 3: CERCLA is part of Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.120 - Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false Which of the package labels listed below indicates the highest radiation hazard? - Radioactive Yellow-III Federal law requires that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when: - hazardous materials are used or stored on site A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents: - can be more complex All cylinders should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are: - pressurized The four-digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the: - United Nations (UN) product identification number The National Fire Protection Association 704 System for identifying hazardous materials gives: - general hazard and degree of severity A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the National Fire Protection Association 704 System indicates that there is ______ risk in this category from the chemical involved - severe A white quadrant in the 6 o'clock position of the NFPA 704 system is used to indicate: - special hazards the fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the ________ quadrant of the NFPA 704 system - blue United Nations/Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) placards indicate general hazard recognition by: - giving the UN hazard class number using the UN/DOT labeling system, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of: - 3 within the UN/DOT system, a container labeled with a hazard class 4 contains a: - flammable solid of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is the: - Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) composition, hazards, and first aid measures are all parts of the: - Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is: - white referring to the united states military marking system for hazardous materials, an octagon-shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a: - mass explosion referring to the united states military marking system for hazardous materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is: - #3 in a triangle an explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the US military marking system as a: - #2 in a X when referring to the US military marking system, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that: - a protective mask or breathing apparatus must be used a tractor-trailer carrying 1001 pounds of organic peroxides, other than type B, requires: - a yellow placard the NFPA 704 system provides the: - general hazard information the primary hazard of an oxidizer in a fire is its ability to: - accelerate combustion the DOT hazard class 2 includes: - nonflammable gases the DOT hazard class 1 includes: - explosives the DOT hazard class 6 includes: - liquid poisions placards that contain the DOT class number 6 at the bottom identify - an infectious substance hazard the NFPA 704 system indicates hazardous materials as: - potential hazards in using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of ________ would be considered the most dangerous - the sense of smell the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) signal word - Danger - represents: - high level of toxicity the least likely location for terrorists activity of the following choices is: - a remote gov't facility in a rural area according to the NFPA 704 system, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets? - 4, 4, 2 the primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) information is whether the facility: - has chemicals that are used in the workplace a document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazardous of a product is called: - the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the number _______ would be shown in the flammability quadrant of the NFPA 704 system for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur: - 2 a substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled _________ under the UN labeling system - 5 during a suspected terrorists event, warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are - secondary devices a tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the hazard class: - red, 3 ______ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents - a placard during the size up of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the: - flammability of the material substances that are living disease causing materials or are obtained from living organisms are called: - biological agents during transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the: - conductor the person responsible for control of the air-bill papers is the: - pilot shipping papers are referred to as _______ and usually stored ______, in air transport - air bill, in the cockpit Statement 2: if a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers Statement 3: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical amount and weight - statement 1 is false; statements 2 and 3 are true Statement 1: when carrying hazardous materials, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers Statement 2: Shipping papers may include a packing group number listed as I, II, or III Statement 3: the higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the cargo - Statements 1 and 2 are, statement 3 is false a dangerous cargo manifest may be located in the: - wheelhouse or bridge who is responsible for shipping papers when the mode of transportation is aircraft? - Pilot an air bill may be located in the: - cockpit who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading? - driver who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest? - captain or master the waybill/consist may be located with/in the: - engine a bill of lading may be located with/in the: - cab of the vehicle the definition of hazardous material is: - any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard the EPA signal word - Caution - represents: - minor level of toxicity the EPA signal word - Warning - represents: - moderate level of toxicity Statement 1: vision is the safest of the five senses to use in detection of hazardous materials Statement 2: using the senses of sight and sound is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Statement 3: using the human senses of taste and smell is reliable - Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false the senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are: - vision and hearing you have arrived on the scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are all experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a: - nerve agent while extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. there is particularly a large amount of black powders. what type of illegal activity might be occurring here? - explosive manufacturing in the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house you discover the presence of chemicals and glass jars, a possible clue to illegal activity that is indicative of: - drug making which is recognized as a biological agent? - anthrax what would be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility? - Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) Statement 1: Nerve agents are the most toxic of chemical warfare agents Statement 2: blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals Statement 3: biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make and the onset of symptoms usually requires days to weeks - All 3 statements are true the acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents? - nerve agents blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and high-yield Explosive (CBRNE) classification? - Chemical given the product name, you can find the four-digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing the: - Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) which are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent? - loss of bladder control and vomiting using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, which is considered a chemical nerve agent? - V-agent/VX Statement 1: victims have lost control of their bowels - you suspect a nerve agent Statement 2: victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier - you suspect a biological agent the DOT hazard class 2 consists of: - gases the DOT hazard class 3 consists of: - flammable liquids the DOT hazard class 4 consists of: - flammable solids the DOT hazard class 5 consists of: - oxidizers the DOT hazard class 6 consists of: - poisons the DOT hazard class 7 consists of: - radioactive substances the recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a hazardous substance would be found in the ______ section of the ERG - orange one resource that deals with protective action distances involving toxic gas, is the: - DOT ERG book when using the table of isolation distances in the ERG, a large spill is defined as a quantity greater than: - 70 gallons on greater the recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is: - circular the statement: "people inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes: - shelter in place the general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are: - inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection the term - isolate hazard area or deny entry - means - keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area the term - shelter-in-place protection - means: - having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area Scene control at a terrorism incident incident may present unique challenges for the responders. in particular, responders must be aware that: - the terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. you should look first in the ERG for guidance in the: - yellow-boarded section which is a potential ignition source found at the scene of hazardous materials incidents? - radios and flashlights asphyxiation hazard: - can lead to suffocation the collection of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of: - law enforcement ______ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes - absorption the route of exposure effecting the respiratory tracts associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is: - inhalation the term - evacuate - means: - moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include: - battery operated equipment which is a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level? - call for appropriate assistance one of the roles of the first responder awareness level during a hazmat incident is to: - isolate the area which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones? - a circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone a first responder must refer to the table of initial isolation and protective action distances in the ERG whenever: - the material entry in the identification number and name indexes is highlighted the table of initial isolation and protective action distances in the ERG is divided into small spills and large spills. the DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than: - 55 gallons you would expect to find the emergency action for a spill or leak in the ________ section of the ERG - orange when providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident: - the patient should be removed from the contaminated area at which time basic care and decontamination can begin if, in using the ERG, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first responder should go directly to the: - green-bordered section the mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes: - surveying the incident to determine the identity of the material involved the transport container on which you would expect to find a specification plate is known as a: - cargo trank truck a recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. the team reports that the vehicle is an MC312. the container most probably contains a: - corrosive liquid a single or double manhole assembly protected by a flash box or roll-over protection is an identification feature of a(n) __________ carrier shown in the illustration: - Mc 307/DOT 407 a truck that carries corrosive liquids, generally acids, and has a narrow diameter with external ribbing, as illustrated below is an: - MC 312/DOT 412 an MC 306/DOT 406 nonpressure liquid carrier, as illustrated below, can operate with liquids with vapor pressures below _______ psi: - 4 a tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids, class B poisons, and liquid food products with vapor pressures up to 4 psi, is an: - MC 306/DOT 406 a noninsulated, single-shell vessel illustrated below, which carries gases that have been liquified, is an: - MC 331 a cryogenic material would be carried in an: - MC 338 _________ radioactive materials can be packaged in small containers as well as those weighing over 100 tons? - Type B the shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a _______ packaging. - Type A the V-shaped carrier below depicts a ________ carrier: - dry bulk a carboy may be used for transporting materials containing: - corrosives viewed from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape, illustrated below, indicates what type of container - MC 306/DOT 406 the proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an: - MC 312/ DOT 412 pipeline markers contain information describing the: - owner/phone number/product a _________ tank has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated: - cryogenic a cryogenic liquid tank will have: - a double shell with insulation a rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a: - dedicated car if a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a ______ rail car - pressure tank a rail car with exposed fittings is considered to be a ________ car - nonpressure or low-pressure tank a tank car designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -130 degrees F and below is a: - cryogenic liquid tank car which information is required on a pipeline marker? - owner of the pipeline which is mandatory information found on a pesticide label? - EPA registration number which is a required signal word on a pesticide label? - warning when implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should: - be alert for secondary devices two complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident are: - crime scene considerations and possible secondary events above ground pressurized storage tanks are divided into two categories: - low-pressure and pressure bags may be used to store: - nonbulk dry items such as pesticides Statement 1: a common hazard with cylinders is the potential for explosion Statement 2: cryogens pose a substantial threat if the Dewar container fails to maintain the low temperatures Statement 3: skin exposure is not a concern with cryogens - Statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false a common design feature of cylinders is a: - pressure relief valve a tank carrier designed to haul various chemicals whose pressures are less than 40 psi would be an: - MC 307/DOT 407 a _______ is best defined as a tank-within-a-tank with a stainless steel inner tank supported within a strong outer tank, with insulation in the space between the inner and outer tank: - cryogenic liquid tank car what type of container is used to ship materials of radioactivity by air? - Type C packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as: - excepted which material is transported in industrial containers? - smoke detectors large tanks with hemispherical heads on both ends can be identified as: - high pressure which are shipped in industrial packages having limited hazard to the public and environment? - laboratory samples an intermodal container that is capable of holding high pressure gases 3000 psi or higher is a: - tube module intermodal container which is a type of drum? - open heads IBCs are defined as: - intermediate bulk containers an intermediate bulk container called a super sack would most likely contain: - solid materials where would you find valves on a one-ton container? - end which would you not expect in a one-ton container? - oxygen gases that displace oxygen, such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, are examples of ________ asphyxiants: - simple hazard class 3 includes: - gasoline emergency centers such as the ________ are principal agencies providing immediate technical assistance to an emergency responder - CHEMTREC cryogenic liquids are those which exist at: - minus 130 degrees F a substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled a(n) __________ hazard classification. - 7 which value represents an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to like or can cause irreversible, debilitating effects on health? - IDLH which exposure value could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60- minute rest period between exposures? - Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV- STEL) the maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effects, best defines: - threshold limit value/time weighted average (TLV-TWA) gamma particles can be described as: - deadly radiation as it can pass through structural personal protective equipment beta particles can be described as: - ionizing radiation like x-rays the CHEMTREC organization is available _______ hours per day to provide information about ________. - 24, many chemicals a container labeled with a hazard class of 4 contains a(n): - flammable solid given the MSDS provided, in which section would signs and symptoms of exposure and routes of entry be found? - Section #3 given the provided MSDS, in what sections can you find info on precautions for safe handling to include release measures and personal protection measures? - 7 and 8 given the MSDS provided, identify the chemical abstract service (CAS) number. - 75-21-8 given the provided MSDS, in which sections would you find PPE and first aid procedures? - 4 and 8 given the provided MSDS, identify the boiling point of the chemical - 13 degrees C alpha particles can be described as: - particles with weight and mass which statement is true regarding neutron radiation? - they are highly penetrating which type of radiation has a physical mass but has no electrical charge? - neutron structural firefighting gear with self-contained breathing apparatus will protect responders from: - beta particles when contacting the CHEMTREC, the caller should be prepared to provide the: - type of container or vehicle ________ is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor: - flammable (explosive) range corrosiveness can be described as the: - measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance _______ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a value of 1.0 - specific gravity ______ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air. - flash point which is considered to be a breach in a metal container? - punctures in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is medium term. medium term means: - days, weeks, and months in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is short term. short term means: - minutes and hours in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. long term means: - years and generations all biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT hazard class: - 6 determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as: - vapor density a product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of: - specific gravity the hemispheric dispersion pattern is best described as: - a circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground chemicals that are classified as ______ can cause a severe allergic reaction. - sensitizers a person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical over a long period of time may develop: - chronic health hazard which is a dispersion pattern created by the release of a hazardous material? - cloud a poison that will cause a person to have seizures is called a(n): - convulsant the irregular dispersion pattern is best described as: - carried by contaminated responders when exposed to heat or fire, a liquid with a low boiling point will: - more readily change to a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point the temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is best described as: - the boiling point the flammable range is best described as the: - percentage of gas or vapor concentration in air the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface is best described as - flash point the minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best described as: - autoignition temperature when describing a product as a solid, liquid, or a gas, we are referring to its: - physical state all personnel and equipment exposed to hazardous materials are considered: - contaminated what would be the likely result of allowing a contaminated individual to leave the hot zone without being decontaminated? - the contaminates would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens are permanent and irreversible conditions known as: - chronic health hazards convulsants are best described as: - poisons that will cause an exposed individual to have seizures after repeated exposure, _________ will cause an allergic reaction. - sensitizers/allergens toxic gases, blood agents, such as arsine and cyanogen chloride, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard class and divison? - 2.3 which is considered a DOT hazard class 4 product? - flammable solid one type of hazardous material that is classified as DOT class 1 is: - explosives with a mass explosion hazard the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the ________ point. - flash the measurement commonly used by the OSHA administration in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8-hour period is: - PEL the resource that would be useful in determining the size of an endangered area during a hazmat incident is the: - ERG one of the symptoms of poisonous gases such as chlorine and anhydrous ammonia is severe irritation to the ______ system. - respiratory one type of hazardous material that may be shock sensitive is: - organic peroxide if available, which resource is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders' input, local data and leak info? - Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA) Which resource would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material within an endangered area when provided with local data and leak info? - Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA) Which resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area? - monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Hazmat Technicians are needed to operate this equipment in level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with: - a small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident if a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all: - ignition sources one of the guidelines from protecting against possible secondary devices is: - manage the scene with cordons, boundaries, and scene control zones what would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non- flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking? - inhalation the primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is: - explosion removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires: - the emergency decontamination process statement 1: remote shutoffs are usually well marked with an orange placard statement 2: remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the back door statement 3: on vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the rear of the cargo tank or behind the driver's door - statements 1 and 2 are false, statement 3 is TRUE a process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called: - absorption when determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the: - specific gravity of a material which statement is correct concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill - dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be: - defensive strategies identify the process of controlling fumes or vapors that are given off by flammable liquids - vapor suppression _______ is compromised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area - confinement an advantage of confinement operations is that - direct exposure of personnel is avoided the purpose of vapor suppression is to - reduce the emission of vapors defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are - dike, dam, diversion, and retention a process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called - diversion statement 1: absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous material spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill statement 2: absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill statement 3: absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous materials - statements 1 and 3 are true, statement 2 is false statement 1: vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapors away from certain areas statement 2: vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem statement 3: the command post is located in the warm zone - statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false statement 1: safety briefings should be a verbal relay of info on the written site safety plan statement 2: the safety briefing should stress the potential hazards that exist statement 3: safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is also a crime scene - all three statements are true statement 1: the decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make statement 2: sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area statement 3: evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place - statement 2 is true, statements 1 and 3 are false one of the keys to evidence preservation is - minimize the number of people working in the area at a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, the first responder should - minimize the number of people working in the area identify the five major functions within the Incident Management System (IMS) - command, ops, planning, logistics, and finance which task at a hazardous materials incident will be provided by logistics? - responsible for securing facilities, services, and equipment when the safety officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident, they should - intervene in the unsafe action one the safety officer arrives on the scene, the IC should - have the SO review the incident action plan when determining the location of the command post, it is vital that - it is in a safe area level III incidents often require the technical expertise of ________ to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident - a specialist the person who advises the IC of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the - safety officer a level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from - a hazardous material response team at a hazardous materials emergency, the operations section serves the task of: - controlling the tactical portion of the incident the _________ is the location where coordination, control, and communications are centralized - command post at a hazardous materials incident, the SO's responsibilities include: - participating in preparation of an monitoring the safety plan the individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources describes the: - incident commander at a suspected terrorist incident, evidence collection is primarily the responsibility of - law enforcement who is responsible for requesting additional resources at a hazardous materials incident? - logistics section chief within the ICS, the optimum span of control is - 5:1 how often should a SCBA unit be inspected after it has been used - daily when responding to a potential hazardous material incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to - approach from uphill and upwind even if it requires a longer response time the first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is - isolation of the area and prevention of entry when operating at a hazmat scene, what is required when operating in a hot zone - utilization of a buddy system to minimize the physical limitations of PPE, a FF should - hydrate frequently respiratory protective equipment should be cleaned an inspected - after each use back-up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the __________ zone. - cold a ________ sound often occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure - pinging which are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon? - remain isolated until deconned a vapor tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a: - level A heat stress is associated with: - muscle cramps in legs and abdomen what single item makes a level B ensemble different from the lower levels of PPE? - SCBA dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, are all signs of: - heat exhaustion heat stroke is associated with - hot, dry, red skin penetration can be described as - movement of material through closures heat ________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin - exhaustion symptoms of heat _________ include little or not sweating; hot, dry, red skin; deep, then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse - stroke when donning SCBA with a level A suit, the self-contained breathing apparatus is: - worn inside the PPE permeation can be described as - occurring on a molecular level statement 1: heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated statement 2: heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body statement 3: both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life threatening conditions - statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false cracking, charring, and discoloration are examples of ________ to a chemical garment - degradation the decon of crew memebers through the use of water and soap is known as - dilution what PPE would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5 mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure and was dermally toxic - level A when dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should be used to minimize radioactive contamination? - time, distance, shielding in which type of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) call is structural FF gear and chemical protective ensemble inadequate? - explosive/mechanical the best type of PPE for thermal hazards would be - structural FF clothing the process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes - penetration the physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing by a chemical action is called - degradation the maximum hose length allowed by NIOSH when using an airline hose respirator is _______ feet - 300 the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best describes _______ protection - level b the best protective material against a specific chemical is one that has a low _______ rate (if any) and a long ______ time - permeation, breakthrough the elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the material is called - breakthrough time the chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials best defines - permeation in order to safely estimate the chemical resistance of a particular garment, manufacturers supply - compatibility charts there is no assurance that once decon of chemical protective clothing is complete _____ has ceased - permeation chemical permeation rates are a result of - temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations _____ is the flow of a hazardous material through zippers, pinholes, or other material imperfections found in chemical protective clothing - penetration the physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use or ambient conditions defines - degredation ________ is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product - flaring another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called - flaring ________ is the most commonly used method for decontaminating personnel - dilution/washing the eight step process recommended for assessing a hazmat incident includes - hazard risk evaluation which principal characteristic of adsorption is true? - off gassing is reduced adsorption is the process of - adhering the contaminant to a surface a process in which a material is added to soak up a hazardous material to prevent enlargement or spread of the contaminated area is known as - adsorption when using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of - run-off contamination at a spill, defensive actions should include - diking or remote closing of a valve in some situations, it may be safe and acceptable for Operations-level responders to operate emergency remote shutoff valves on cargo tank trucks. this remote shut off on an Mc 306/DOT 406 will be located at the - left front corner which is a true statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs - they are usually well marked in red and in an easy-to-find location which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion? - the runoff may need to be contained