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TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST (100% GUARANTEED PASS) LATEST UPDATE, Exams of Human Resource Management

TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST (100% GUARANTEED PASS) LATEST UPDATE TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST (100% GUARANTEED PASS) LATEST UPDATE TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST (100% GUARANTEED PASS) LATEST UPDATE

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2023/2024

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Download TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST (100% GUARANTEED PASS) LATEST UPDATE and more Exams Human Resource Management in PDF only on Docsity! TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST (100% GUARANTEED PASS) LATEST UPDATE Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition for a: hazardous material When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination? Time, distance, shielding A reference book intended as a guide to aid emergency responders to guide quickly and identify specific hazards during the initial phase is the: DOT, Emergency Response Guidebook The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook are: health and fire/explosion The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called: protective actions The most important part of assessment is: recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Which information should be provided during the notifications? Container type Statement 1: CERCLA established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites. Statement 2: A trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified was established by CERCLA Statement 3: CERCLA is part of Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.120 Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false Which of the package labels listed below indicates the highest radiation hazard? Radioactive Yellow-III Federal law requires that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when: hazardous materials are used or stored on site A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents: can be more complex All cylinders should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are: pressurized Local emergency response personnel can gain valuable information if the is utilized in preincident planning Local Emergency Planning Committee Shipping papers are required to contain: the hazardous classification according to DOT regulations When transporting hazardous materials, the shipping papers should contain: hazard class of the material on a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the: hazard class the DOT placarding system requires a vehicle carrying over 1001 pounds of corrosive display a placard white over black the DOT placarding system requires a vehicle carrying a nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored: green a type of material that can be extremely toxic and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a poison any material that, when taken into the body, is injurious to health is known as: poisionous material in the NFPA 704 system of identification, the diamond-shaped placard used for fire hazard is colored: red the NFPA lists as the standard for identifying chemical hazards of materials at fixed facilities 704 the the NFPA 704 system, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored yellow a hazard class of 3, within the UN labeling system indicates a product flammable/combustible liquid a substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels, would be labeled hazard class under the UN/DOT labeling system 5 a container of flammable solids would receive a UN label or placard with a hazardous classification number of: 4 using the UN/DOT labeling system, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of: 3 within the UN/DOT system, a container labeled with a hazard class 4 contains a: flammable solid of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is the: Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) composition, hazards, and first aid measures are all parts of the: Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is: white referring to the united states military marking system for hazardous materials, an octagon-shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a: mass explosion according to the NFPA 704 system, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets? 4, 4, 2 the primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) information is whether the facility: has chemicals that are used in the workplace a document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazardous of a product is called: the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the number would be shown in the flammability quadrant of the NFPA 704 system for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur: 2 a substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled under the UN labeling system 5 during a suspected terrorists event, warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are secondary devices a tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the hazard class: red, 3 is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents a placard during the size up of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the: flammability of the material substances that are living disease causing materials or are obtained from living organisms are called: biological agents during transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the: conductor the person responsible for control of the air-bill papers is the: pilot shipping papers are referred to as and usually stored , in air transport air bill, in the cockpit which is a signal word found on pesticide labels? Warning Which mode of transportation corresponds with a Waybill/Consist? Rail which mode of transportation corresponds with a dangerous cargo manifest? water Which is required on a pipeline marker? pipeline owner's phone number which type of event should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement? Mass casualty incident which occupancy or location types would be considered a possible targets for terrorism? infrastructures what are some of the signs and symptoms of body irritants? unexplained signs and symptoms of skin, eye, or airway irritation what is a factor that should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement? occupancy Statement 3: the higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the cargo Statements 1 and 2 are, statement 3 is false a dangerous cargo manifest may be located in the: wheelhouse or bridge who is responsible for shipping papers when the mode of transportation is aircraft? Pilot an air bill may be located in the: cockpit who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading? driver who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest? captain or master the waybill/consist may be located with/in the: engine a bill of lading may be located with/in the: cab of the vehicle the definition of hazardous material is: any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard the EPA signal word - Caution - represents: minor level of toxicity the EPA signal word - Warning - represents: moderate level of toxicity Statement 1: vision is the safest of the five senses to use in detection of hazardous materials Statement 2: using the senses of sight and sound is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Statement 3: using the human senses of taste and smell is reliable Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false the senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are: vision and hearing you have arrived on the scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are all experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a: nerve agent while extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. there is particularly a large amount of black powders. what type of illegal activity might be occurring here? explosive manufacturing in the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house you discover the presence of chemicals and glass jars, a possible clue to illegal activity that is indicative of: drug making which is recognized as a biological agent? anthrax what would be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility? Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) Statement 1: Nerve agents are the most toxic of chemical warfare agents Statement 2: blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals DOT the NFPA 704 system is designed for: fixed facilities Statement 1: a MSDS provides the name the chemical company uses to identify the product Statement 2: the product name is not always identical to the chemical name, as listed on a MSDS Statement 3: the listing of product names, chemical names, and synonyms on MSDS can make identifying chemicals sometimes confusing all three statements are true the DOT hazard class 8 consists of: corrosives the primary hazard of a DOT hazard class 5 material is: oxidation if a numbered guide for a transported hazardous material cannot be obtained, the first responder should: refer to the Table of Placards section of the Guidebook which section of the ERG provides the fire, explosion, and health hazard information for the material identified by the first responder? orange if a placard is visible, but no product name or four digit UN number is given, how can you determine which guide page of the ERG to use? the table of placards lists guide numbers if a chemical name is highlighted in the ERG, the table of initial isolation and protective action distances are found in the section: green when referring to the ERG, if a chemical name is not highlighted, the next step is to proceed to the section for the action guides. orange the chemicals listed in highlighted type in the ERG were selected because: they present a toxic inhalation hazard the DOT hazard class 9 consists of: miscellaneous the DOT hazard class 1 consists of: explosives the DOT hazard class 2 consists of: gases the DOT hazard class 3 consists of: flammable liquids the DOT hazard class 4 consists of: flammable solids the DOT hazard class 5 consists of: oxidizers the DOT hazard class 6 consists of: poisons the DOT hazard class 7 consists of: radioactive substances the recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a hazardous substance would be found in the section of the ERG orange the term - evacuate - means: moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include: battery operated equipment which is a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level? call for appropriate assistance one of the roles of the first responder awareness level during a hazmat incident is to: isolate the area which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones? a circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone a first responder must refer to the table of initial isolation and protective action distances in the ERG whenever: the material entry in the identification number and name indexes is highlighted the table of initial isolation and protective action distances in the ERG is divided into small spills and large spills. the DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than: 55 gallons you would expect to find the emergency action for a spill or leak in the section of the ERG orange when providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident: the patient should be removed from the contaminated area at which time basic care and decontamination can begin if, in using the ERG, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first responder should go directly to the: green-bordered section the mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes: surveying the incident to determine the identity of the material involved first responders trained to the awareness level have the ability to: realize the need for additional resources and make the appropriate notificiations the isolation distance in the orange section of the ERG is for: consideration for evacuation upon arrival to a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you learn it is carrying magnesium. you are unable to obtain the 4-digit ID number. where you should look first in the ERG for guidance? in the blue-bordered material index section in the ERG, the first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the: yellow and blue-bordered sections When using the ERG, the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide number is to: go to the orange bordered section the lead agency during a terrorist attack is the: federal bureau of investigation if you are initiating the IMS at a hazardous materials incident, the person assigned as the safety officer must be: trained to the technician level the goal of an emergency decon procedure is to: remove any threatening contamination as quickly as possible if a product with a vapor density of 1.6 escaped from its container, you would expect the product to: collect in low-lying areas a single or double manhole assembly protected by a flash box or roll-over protection is an identification feature of a(n) carrier shown in the illustration: Mc 307/DOT 407 a truck that carries corrosive liquids, generally acids, and has a narrow diameter with external ribbing, as illustrated below is an: MC 312/DOT 412 an MC 306/DOT 406 nonpressure liquid carrier, as illustrated below, can operate with liquids with vapor pressures below psi: 4 a tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids, class B poisons, and liquid food products with vapor pressures up to 4 psi, is an: MC 306/DOT 406 a noninsulated, single-shell vessel illustrated below, which carries gases that have been liquified, is an: MC 331 a cryogenic material would be carried in an: MC 338 radioactive materials can be packaged in small containers as well as those weighing over 100 tons? Type B the shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a packaging. Type A the V-shaped carrier below depicts a carrier: dry bulk a carboy may be used for transporting materials containing: corrosives viewed from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape, illustrated below, indicates what type of container MC 306/DOT 406 the proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an: MC 312/ DOT 412 pipeline markers contain information describing the: owner/phone number/product a tank has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated: cryogenic a cryogenic liquid tank will have: a double shell with insulation a rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a: dedicated car if a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a rail car pressure tank a rail car with exposed fittings is considered to be a car nonpressure or low-pressure tank a tank car designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -130 degrees F and below is a: cryogenic liquid tank car which information is required on a pipeline marker? owner of the pipeline Cylindrical packaging made of metal, plastic, or fiberboard, used to transport solids or liquids best describes: drums type packaging contains low-level commercial radioactive shipments in cardboard boxes, wooden crates, and metal drums: A these trailers contain several pressurized vessels ranging from 3000 to 6000 psi piping and are known as: compressed gas tube trailers which is a characteristic of a compressed gas tube trailer? the manifold or valve control box is enclosed at the rear a specialized intermodal tank container which transports gases in high-pressure cylinders (3000-5000) is known as a(n): tube module/trailer a specialized intermodal tank container which carries refrigerated liquid gases, oxygen, or helium would be an example of: cryogenic intermodal tanks/IM type 7 cryogenic liquid storage tanks are: diverse in pressure ratings, with some as high as 300 psi and heavily insulated Statement 1: there are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship) Statement 2: cryogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers because they are considered to be too unstable for this type of shipment Statement 3: radioactive material containers are shipped in either type A or type B containers statements 1 and 3 are true, statement 2 is false you have arrived on the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving pesticides. on one of the pesticide labels, you notice the statement "keep away from children." this statement is called the: precautionary statement common hazards materials stored in nonbulk packages, referred to as bags, are: fertilizers a railcar tanker with a stencil marking of DOT 111 is a(n): non-pressurized railcar the products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: flammable liquids the products that IM 102 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: nonregulated materials the design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is: 25.4 to 100 psi pneumatically unloaded hopper cars typically carry: powdered materials a is best defined as a tank-within-a-tank with a stainless steel inner tank supported within a strong outer tank, with insulation in the space between the inner and outer tank: cryogenic liquid tank car what type of container is used to ship materials of radioactivity by air? Type C packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as: excepted which material is transported in industrial containers? smoke detectors which exposure value could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures? Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV-STEL) the maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effects, best defines: threshold limit value/time weighted average (TLV-TWA) gamma particles can be described as: deadly radiation as it can pass through structural personal protective equipment beta particles can be described as: ionizing radiation like x-rays the CHEMTREC organization is available hours per day to provide information about . 24, many chemicals a container labeled with a hazard class of 4 contains a(n): flammable solid given the MSDS provided, in which section would signs and symptoms of exposure and routes of entry be found? Section #3 given the provided MSDS, in what sections can you find info on precautions for safe handling to include release measures and personal protection measures? 7 and 8 given the MSDS provided, identify the chemical abstract service (CAS) number. 75-21-8 given the provided MSDS, in which sections would you find PPE and first aid procedures? 4 and 8 given the provided MSDS, identify the boiling point of the chemical 13 degrees C alpha particles can be described as: particles with weight and mass which statement is true regarding neutron radiation? they are highly penetrating which type of radiation has a physical mass but has no electrical charge? neutron structural firefighting gear with self-contained breathing apparatus will protect responders from: beta particles when contacting the CHEMTREC, the caller should be prepared to provide the: type of container or vehicle CHEMTREC is able to provide assistance to responders if: the name of the shipper or manufacturer is known CHEMTREC/CANUTEC can usually provide: technical information in an emergency at a facility with bulk chemical storage, where the MSDS is not available on site, the firefighter may obtain information from: CHEMTREC radiation that can be stopped by a piece of paper consists of particles. alpha which substance would be classified as a chemical asphyxiant? carbon monoxide vapors that attack the mucous membranes, such as the surfaces of the eyes, nose and throat, are considered: irritants interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration asphyxiants materials such as lithium, finely divided magnesium, sodium, and cesium are classified as: water reactive is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor: flammable (explosive) range corrosiveness can be described as the: measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a value of 1.0 specific gravity is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air. flash point which is considered to be a breach in a metal container? punctures in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is medium term. medium term means: days, weeks, and months in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is short term. short term means: minutes and hours in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. long term means: years and generations all biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT hazard class: 6 determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as: vapor density a product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of: specific gravity the hemispheric dispersion pattern is best described as: a circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground chemicals that are classified as can cause a severe allergic reaction. sensitizers a person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical over a long period of time may develop: chronic health hazard which is a dispersion pattern created by the release of a hazardous material? cloud a poison that will cause a person to have seizures is called a(n): convulsant flammable solid one type of hazardous material that is classified as DOT class 1 is: explosives with a mass explosion hazard the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the point. flash vapor pressures of a substance at 100 degrees F always higher than the same substance at 68 degrees F with DOT hazard class covers nerve agents used in chemical warfare? DOT 6.1 in an emergency, responders can acquire a MSDS sheet from manufacturer of the chemical the immediate concern when dealing with combustible liquid spills is to: prevent ignition of the fuel most riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class: 6.1 choking agents like attack the lungs causing tissue damage. phosgene a specific class of chemicals, called blood agents are highly toxic to the human body because they: are chemical asphyxiants because they interfere with oxygen utilization materials such as benzene, asbestos, and arsenic are known as: carcinogens which is a symptom of an irritant exposure? burning sensation to eyes the of a chemical is its ability to remain in the environment. persistance one of the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires is: carbon monoxide (CO) to contact the shipper for hazard and response information, a firefighter can obtain information number from: the shipping papers a poison that can be harmful if inhaled, swallowed, absorbed or introduced into the body is known as: toxic specific gravity can be described as the: ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water water solubility can be described as the: degree to which a substance will mix with water the pool dispersion pattern is best described as: a three dimensional pattern a steam dispersion pattern is best described as: a surface following pattern at an emergency incident, the firefighter may obtain appropriate MSDS info from: the employer of the facility the UN/DOT hazard class for nerve agents is: 6.1 ignition sources one of the guidelines from protecting against possible secondary devices is: manage the scene with cordons, boundaries, and scene control zones what would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non- flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking? inhalation the primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is: explosion removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires: the emergency decontamination process statement 1: remote shutoffs are usually well marked with an orange placard statement 2: remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the back door statement 3: on vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the rear of the cargo tank or behind the driver's door statements 1 and 2 are false, statement 3 is TRUE a process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called: absorption when determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the: specific gravity of a material which statement is correct concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be: defensive strategies identify the process of controlling fumes or vapors that are given off by flammable liquids vapor suppression is compromised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area confinement an advantage of confinement operations is that direct exposure of personnel is avoided the purpose of vapor suppression is to reduce the emission of vapors defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are dike, dam, diversion, and retention a process by which a hazardous liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called diversion statement 1: absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous material spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill statement 2: absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill statement 3: absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous materials statements 1 and 3 are true, statement 2 is false statement 1: vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapors away from certain areas statement 2: vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem statement 3: vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble statement 1 is true, statements 2 and 3 are false when sheltering people in place, the citizens should be directed to close all heating, ventilation, and AC systems prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on anticipated duration of the task which is a consideration when setting up an emergency decon area? run off when dealing with a level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of: large scale evacuation statement 1: the hot zone is the area immediately around the release statement 2: the warm zone includes the contains the decontamination area statement 3: the command post is located in the warm zone statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false statement 1: safety briefings should be a verbal relay of info on the written site safety plan statement 2: the safety briefing should stress the potential hazards that exist statement 3: safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is also a crime scene all three statements are true statement 1: the decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make statement 2: sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area statement 3: evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place statement 2 is true, statements 1 and 3 are false one of the keys to evidence preservation is minimize the number of people working in the area at a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, the first responder should minimize the number of people working in the area identify the five major functions within the Incident Management System (IMS) command, ops, planning, logistics, and finance which task at a hazardous materials incident will be provided by logistics? responsible for securing facilities, services, and equipment when the safety officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident, they should intervene in the unsafe action one the safety officer arrives on the scene, the IC should have the SO review the incident action plan when determining the location of the command post, it is vital that it is in a safe area level III incidents often require the technical expertise of to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident a specialist the person who advises the IC of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the safety officer a level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from a hazardous material response team at a hazardous materials emergency, the operations section serves the task of: controlling the tactical portion of the incident what would show that the correct actions were taken at a flammable gas leak? lower readings on the monitors when a fire involves the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the responders should immediately evacuate the area if the SO notices an unsafe activity at an emergency, the SO should stop the activity immedately at a hazmat incident, the assistant safety officer directly reports to the safety officer at a hazmat incident, which function area is responsible for developing a special technical group to the basic ICS operations what is unique about hazmat IMS? there are typically 2 safety officers assigned the incident command post at a hazmat incident: should relay their location to the dispatcher and responding personnel which are safety guidelines for the use of vapor protective clothing? suits significantly impair mobility when considering personal protection, remember that the most vulnerable route of exposure for an emergency responder is the respiratory system work uniforms that provide minimal protection best defines EPA protection level D the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defines EPA protection Level B the type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n) air-purification respirator SCBA and supplied air respirators, are two types of atmosphere supplied devices exposure to materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite cryogenic the most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is chemical compatibility the highest level of protection, based on EPA guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is level A the minimum level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(n)? positive pressure SCBA which is a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure SCBA? physical condition this suit is used where splashed may occur, but where respiratory hazards are minimal level C statement 1: when decontamination and doffing of PPE occurs in a cold environment, the body can cool rapidly statement 2: wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to 240 times faster than dry clothing, which can lead to hypothermia cracking, charring, and discoloration are examples of to a chemical garment degradation the decon of crew memebers through the use of water and soap is known as dilution what PPE would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5 mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure and was dermally toxic level A when dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should be used to minimize radioactive contamination? time, distance, shielding in which type of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) call is structural FF gear and chemical protective ensemble inadequate? explosive/mechanical the best type of PPE for thermal hazards would be structural FF clothing the process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes penetration the physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing by a chemical action is called degradation the maximum hose length allowed by NIOSH when using an airline hose respirator is feet 300 the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best describes protection level b the best protective material against a specific chemical is one that has a low rate (if any) and a long time permeation, breakthrough the elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective equipment and detection at the inside surface of the material is called breakthrough time the chemical action involving the movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials best defines permeation in order to safely estimate the chemical resistance of a particular garment, manufacturers supply compatibility charts there is no assurance that once decon of chemical protective clothing is complete has ceased permeation chemical permeation rates are a result of temperature, thickness, previous exposures, and chemical combinations is the flow of a hazardous material through zippers, pinholes, or other material imperfections found in chemical protective clothing penetration the physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use or ambient conditions defines degredation standard structural FF ensemble including SCBA are adequate for which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) incidents? beta radiation in dealing with biological agents, the minimum required protection is level C heat exhaustion is associated with cool, moist skin which is a true life-threatening emergency that requires immediate attention? heat stroke lowered body core temp is called hypothermia diking, damming, and diverting are options available for control defensive; spill as a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted? isolate and deny entry is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product flaring another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called flaring is the most commonly used method for decontaminating personnel dilution/washing the eight step process recommended for assessing a hazmat incident includes hazard risk evaluation which principal characteristic of adsorption is true? off gassing is reduced adsorption is the process of adhering the contaminant to a surface a process in which a material is added to soak up a hazardous material to prevent enlargement or spread of the contaminated area is known as adsorption when using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of run-off contamination at a spill, defensive actions should include diking or remote closing of a valve in some situations, it may be safe and acceptable for Operations-level responders to operate emergency remote shutoff valves on cargo tank trucks. this remote shut off on an Mc 306/DOT 406 will be located at the left front corner which is a true statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs they are usually well marked in red and in an easy-to-find location which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion? the runoff may need to be contained
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