TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESSOPS TEST (2022/2023) (Verified Answers), Exams of Community Health

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TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESSOPS TEST (2022/2023) (Verified Answers) Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition for a: - answer hazardous material When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination? - answer Time, distance, shielding A reference book intended as a guide to aid emergency responders to guide quickly and identify specific hazards during the initial phase is the: - answer DOT, Emergency Response Guidebook The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook are: - answer health and fire/explosion The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called: - answer protective actions The most important part of assessment is: - answer recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Which information should be provided during the notifications? - answer Container type Statement 1: CERCLA established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites. Statement 2: A trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified was established by CERCLA Statement 3: CERCLA is part of Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.120 - answer Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false Which of the package labels listed below indicates the highest radiation hazard? - answer Radioactive Yellow-III Federal law requires that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when: - answer hazardous materials are used or stored on site A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents: - answer can be more complex All cylinders should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are: - answer pressurized The four-digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the: - answer United Nations (UN) product identification number The National Fire Protection Association 704 System for identifying hazardous materials gives: - answer general hazard and degree of severity A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the National Fire Protection Association 704 System indicates that there is ______ risk in this category from the chemical involved - answer severe A white quadrant in the 6 o'clock position of the NFPA 704 system is used to indicate: - answer special hazards the fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the ________ quadrant of the NFPA 704 system - answer blue a container of flammable solids would receive a UN label or placard with a hazardous classification number of: - answer 4 using the UN/DOT labeling system, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of: - answer 3 within the UN/DOT system, a container labeled with a hazard class 4 contains a: - answer flammable solid of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is the: - answer Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) composition, hazards, and first aid measures are all parts of the: - answer Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is: - answer white referring to the united states military marking system for hazardous materials, an octagon- shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a: - answer mass explosion referring to the united states military marking system for hazardous materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is: - answer #3 in a triangle an explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the US military marking system as a: - answer #2 in a X when referring to the US military marking system, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that: - answer a protective mask or breathing apparatus must be used a tractor-trailer carrying 1001 pounds of organic peroxides, other than type B, requires: - answer a yellow placard the NFPA 704 system provides the: - answer general hazard information the primary hazard of an oxidizer in a fire is its ability to: - answer accelerate combustion the DOT hazard class 2 includes: - answer nonflammable gases the DOT hazard class 1 includes: - answer explosives the DOT hazard class 6 includes: - answer liquid poisions placards that contain the DOT class number 6 at the bottom identify - answer an infectious substance hazard the NFPA 704 system indicates hazardous materials as: - answer potential hazards in using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of ________ would be considered the most dangerous - answer the sense of smell the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) signal word - Danger - represents: - answer high level of toxicity the least likely location for terrorists activity of the following choices is: - answer a remote gov't facility in a rural area according to the NFPA 704 system, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets? - answer 4, 4, 2 the primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) information is whether the facility: - answer has chemicals that are used in the workplace a document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazardous of a product is called: - answer the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) the number _______ would be shown in the flammability quadrant of the NFPA 704 system for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur: - answer 2 a substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled _________ under the UN labeling system - answer 5 during a suspected terrorists event, warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are - answer secondary devices a tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the hazard class: - answer red, 3 ______ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents - answer a placard during the size up of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the: - answer flammability of the material substances that are living disease causing materials or are obtained from living organisms are called: - answer biological agents during transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the: - answer conductor the person responsible for control of the air-bill papers is the: - answer pilot Statement 1: if placards are clearly displayed on the transportation mode, shipping papers are not required Statement 2: if a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers Statement 3: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical amount and weight - answer statement 1 is false; statements 2 and 3 are true Statement 1: when carrying hazardous materials, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers Statement 2: Shipping papers may include a packing group number listed as I, II, or III Statement 3: the higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the cargo - answer Statements 1 and 2 are, statement 3 is false a dangerous cargo manifest may be located in the: - answer wheelhouse or bridge who is responsible for shipping papers when the mode of transportation is aircraft? - answer Pilot an air bill may be located in the: - answer cockpit who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading? - answer driver who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest? - answer captain or master the waybill/consist may be located with/in the: - answer engine a bill of lading may be located with/in the: - answer cab of the vehicle the definition of hazardous material is: - answer any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard the EPA signal word - Caution - represents: - answer minor level of toxicity the EPA signal word - Warning - represents: - answer moderate level of toxicity Statement 1: vision is the safest of the five senses to use in detection of hazardous materials Statement 2: using the senses of sight and sound is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazardous materials Statement 3: using the human senses of taste and smell is reliable - answer Statements 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false the senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are: - answer vision and hearing you have arrived on the scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are all experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a: - answer nerve agent while extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. there is particularly a large amount of black powders. what type of illegal activity might be occurring here? - answer explosive manufacturing in the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house you discover the presence of chemicals and glass jars, a possible clue to illegal activity that is indicative of: - answer drug making which is recognized as a biological agent? - answer anthrax what would be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility? - answer Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) Statement 1: Nerve agents are the most toxic of chemical warfare agents Statement 2: blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals Statement 3: biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make and the onset of symptoms usually requires days to weeks - answer All 3 statements are true the acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents? - answer nerve agents blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and high-yield Explosive (CBRNE) classification? - answer Chemical given the product name, you can find the four-digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing the: - answer Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) which are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent? - answer loss of bladder control and vomiting when referring to the ERG, if a chemical name is not highlighted, the next step is to proceed to the ________ section for the action guides. - answer orange the chemicals listed in highlighted type in the ERG were selected because: - answer they present a toxic inhalation hazard the DOT hazard class 9 consists of: - answer miscellaneous the DOT hazard class 1 consists of: - answer explosives the DOT hazard class 2 consists of: - answer gases the DOT hazard class 3 consists of: - answer flammable liquids the DOT hazard class 4 consists of: - answer flammable solids the DOT hazard class 5 consists of: - answer oxidizers the DOT hazard class 6 consists of: - answer poisons the DOT hazard class 7 consists of: - answer radioactive substances the recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a hazardous substance would be found in the ______ section of the ERG - answer orange one resource that deals with protective action distances involving toxic gas, is the: - answer DOT ERG book when using the table of isolation distances in the ERG, a large spill is defined as a quantity greater than: - answer 70 gallons on greater the recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is: - answer circular the statement: "people inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes: - answer shelter in place the general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are: - answer inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection the term - isolate hazard area or deny entry - means - answer keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area the term - shelter-in-place protection - means: - answer having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area Scene control at a terrorism incident incident may present unique challenges for the responders. in particular, responders must be aware that: - answer the terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. you should look first in the ERG for guidance in the: - answer yellow-boarded section which is a potential ignition source found at the scene of hazardous materials incidents? - answer radios and flashlights asphyxiation hazard: - answer can lead to suffocation the collection of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of: - answer law enforcement ______ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes - answer absorption the route of exposure effecting the respiratory tracts associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is: - answer inhalation the term - evacuate - means: - answer moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include: - answer battery operated equipment which is a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level? - answer call for appropriate assistance one of the roles of the first responder awareness level during a hazmat incident is to: - answer isolate the area which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones? - answer a circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone a first responder must refer to the table of initial isolation and protective action distances in the ERG whenever: - answer the material entry in the identification number and name indexes is highlighted the table of initial isolation and protective action distances in the ERG is divided into small spills and large spills. the DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than: - answer 55 gallons control of the scene begins by isolating the site. the process for establishing initial isolation distances can be found: - answer in the ERG when initiating an IMS at a hazardous materials incident, it is important to remember that an individual's span of control is: - answer 1 to 5 What is the minimum level of training is required to don chemical protective clothing? - answer hazamt operations the statement, "keep away from children," found on a pesticide label is an example of a(n): - answer precautionary statement the statement, "keep away from waterways," found on a pesticide label is referred to as a(n): - answer precautionary statement the transport container on which you would expect to find a specification plate is known as a: - answer cargo trank truck a recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. the team reports that the vehicle is an MC312. the container most probably contains a: - answer corrosive liquid a single or double manhole assembly protected by a flash box or roll-over protection is an identification feature of a(n) __________ carrier shown in the illustration: - answer Mc 307/DOT 407 a truck that carries corrosive liquids, generally acids, and has a narrow diameter with external ribbing, as illustrated below is an: - answer MC 312/DOT 412 an MC 306/DOT 406 nonpressure liquid carrier, as illustrated below, can operate with liquids with vapor pressures below _______ psi: - answer 4 a tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids, class B poisons, and liquid food products with vapor pressures up to 4 psi, is an: - answer MC 306/DOT 406 a noninsulated, single-shell vessel illustrated below, which carries gases that have been liquified, is an: - answer MC 331 a cryogenic material would be carried in an: - answer MC 338 _________ radioactive materials can be packaged in small containers as well as those weighing over 100 tons? - answer Type B the shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a _______ packaging. - answer Type A the V-shaped carrier below depicts a ________ carrier: - answer dry bulk a carboy may be used for transporting materials containing: - answer corrosives viewed from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape, illustrated below, indicates what type of container - answer MC 306/DOT 406 the proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an: - answer MC 312/ DOT 412 pipeline markers contain information describing the: - answer owner/phone number/product a _________ tank has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated: - answer cryogenic a cryogenic liquid tank will have: - answer a double shell with insulation a rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a: - answer dedicated car if a rail car had a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, it would be classified as a ______ rail car - answer pressure tank a rail car with exposed fittings is considered to be a ________ car - answer nonpressure or low-pressure tank a tank car designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -130 degrees F and below is a: - answer cryogenic liquid tank car which information is required on a pipeline marker? - answer owner of the pipeline which is mandatory information found on a pesticide label? - answer EPA registration number which is a required signal word on a pesticide label? - answer warning when implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should: - answer be alert for secondary devices two complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident are: - answer crime scene considerations and possible secondary events above ground pressurized storage tanks are divided into two categories: - answer low- pressure and pressure common hazards materials stored in nonbulk packages, referred to as bags, are: - answer fertilizers a railcar tanker with a stencil marking of DOT 111 is a(n): - answer non-pressurized railcar the products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: - answer flammable liquids the products that IM 102 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are: - answer nonregulated materials the design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is: - answer 25.4 to 100 psi pneumatically unloaded hopper cars typically carry: - answer powdered materials a _______ is best defined as a tank-within-a-tank with a stainless steel inner tank supported within a strong outer tank, with insulation in the space between the inner and outer tank: - answer cryogenic liquid tank car what type of container is used to ship materials of radioactivity by air? - answer Type C packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is known as: - answer excepted which material is transported in industrial containers? - answer smoke detectors large tanks with hemispherical heads on both ends can be identified as: - answer high pressure which are shipped in industrial packages having limited hazard to the public and environment? - answer laboratory samples an intermodal container that is capable of holding high pressure gases 3000 psi or higher is a: - answer tube module intermodal container which is a type of drum? - answer open heads IBCs are defined as: - answer intermediate bulk containers an intermediate bulk container called a super sack would most likely contain: - answer solid materials where would you find valves on a one-ton container? - answer end which would you not expect in a one-ton container? - answer oxygen gases that displace oxygen, such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, are examples of ________ asphyxiants: - answer simple hazard class 3 includes: - answer gasoline emergency centers such as the ________ are principal agencies providing immediate technical assistance to an emergency responder - answer CHEMTREC cryogenic liquids are those which exist at: - answer minus 130 degrees F a substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled a(n) __________ hazard classification. - answer 7 which value represents an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to like or can cause irreversible, debilitating effects on health? - answer IDLH which exposure value could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures? - answer Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV-STEL) the maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effects, best defines: - answer threshold limit value/time weighted average (TLV-TWA) gamma particles can be described as: - answer deadly radiation as it can pass through structural personal protective equipment beta particles can be described as: - answer ionizing radiation like x-rays the CHEMTREC organization is available _______ hours per day to provide information about ________. - answer 24, many chemicals a container labeled with a hazard class of 4 contains a(n): - answer flammable solid given the MSDS provided, in which section would signs and symptoms of exposure and routes of entry be found? - answer Section #3 given the provided MSDS, in what sections can you find info on precautions for safe handling to include release measures and personal protection measures? - answer 7 and 8 when a pressurized tanker fails violently due to over-pressurizing, the phenomenon is called: - answer BLEVE ______ materials may cause severe chemical burns and extensive tissue damage on contact. - answer corrosive a _______ effect occurs at the point of contact with a hazardous substance. - answer local which substance would be classified as a chemical asphyxiant? - answer carbon monoxide vapors that attack the mucous membranes, such as the surfaces of the eyes, nose and throat, are considered: - answer irritants _______ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration - answer asphyxiants materials such as lithium, finely divided magnesium, sodium, and cesium are classified as: - answer water reactive ________ is the difference between the upper and lower flammable limits of a gas or vapor: - answer flammable (explosive) range corrosiveness can be described as the: - answer measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance _______ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of water, with water having a value of 1.0 - answer specific gravity ______ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air. - answer flash point which is considered to be a breach in a metal container? - answer punctures in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is medium term. medium term means: - answer days, weeks, and months in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is short term. short term means: - answer minutes and hours in hazardous materials, one of the three time frames used for predicting the length of time that exposures may be in contact with a hazardous material in an endangered area is long term. long term means: - answer years and generations all biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as DOT hazard class: - answer 6 determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as: - answer vapor density a product that is heavier than water and sinks when placed in water is an example of: - answer specific gravity the hemispheric dispersion pattern is best described as: - answer a circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground chemicals that are classified as ______ can cause a severe allergic reaction. - answer sensitizers a person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical over a long period of time may develop: - answer chronic health hazard which is a dispersion pattern created by the release of a hazardous material? - answer cloud a poison that will cause a person to have seizures is called a(n): - answer convulsant the irregular dispersion pattern is best described as: - answer carried by contaminated responders when exposed to heat or fire, a liquid with a low boiling point will: - answer more readily change to a vapor than a liquid with a high boiling point the temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is best described as: - answer the boiling point the flammable range is best described as the: - answer percentage of gas or vapor concentration in air the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface is best described as - answer flash point the minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best described as: - answer autoignition temperature when describing a product as a solid, liquid, or a gas, we are referring to its: - answer physical state all personnel and equipment exposed to hazardous materials are considered: - answer contaminated specific gravity can be described as the: - answer ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water water solubility can be described as the: - answer degree to which a substance will mix with water the pool dispersion pattern is best described as: - answer a three dimensional pattern a steam dispersion pattern is best described as: - answer a surface following pattern at an emergency incident, the firefighter may obtain appropriate MSDS info from: - answer the employer of the facility the UN/DOT hazard class for nerve agents is: - answer 6.1 neurotoxins such as organophosphates will effect which target organ? - answer nervous system the term that describes the part of the body effected by a specific toxin is called the: - answer target organ the concentration that should never be exceeded is called: - answer TLV-C the amount of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50 percent of the test population is: - answer LD50 the measurement commonly used by the OSHA administration in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8-hour period is: - answer PEL the resource that would be useful in determining the size of an endangered area during a hazmat incident is the: - answer ERG one of the symptoms of poisonous gases such as chlorine and anhydrous ammonia is severe irritation to the ______ system. - answer respiratory one type of hazardous material that may be shock sensitive is: - answer organic peroxide if available, which resource is able to predict vapor cloud travel after responders' input, local data and leak info? - answer Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA) Which resource would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material within an endangered area when provided with local data and leak info? - answer Area Locations Of Hazardous Atmospheres (ALOHA) Which resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area? - answer monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Hazmat Technicians are needed to operate this equipment in level I incidents, the response team should be able to deal with: - answer a small gasoline spill from a motor vehicle accident if a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all: - answer ignition sources one of the guidelines from protecting against possible secondary devices is: - answer manage the scene with cordons, boundaries, and scene control zones what would be the primary hazard to a responder while rescuing victims in a building where a non-flammable hazard class 2 product is leaking? - answer inhalation the primary hazard to responders rescuing victims in the vicinity of a fire involving products of hazard class 1 is: - answer explosion removal of contaminated victims that are in need of medical treatment from the hazard area requires: - answer the emergency decontamination process statement 1: remote shutoffs are usually well marked with an orange placard statement 2: remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the back door statement 3: on vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the rear of the cargo tank or behind the driver's door - answer statements 1 and 2 are false, statement 3 is TRUE a process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called: - answer absorption when determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, responders need to consider the: - answer specific gravity of a material which statement is correct concerning the proper procedure for dilution of a spill - answer dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely, are considered to be: - answer defensive strategies identify the process of controlling fumes or vapors that are given off by flammable liquids - answer vapor suppression the zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points, is known as a _________ zone - answer hot/exclusion the area that exists just outside the hot/exclusion zone is known as the: - answer warm zone the __________ zone is in the area of highest known hazard - answer hot/exclusion one of the factors that can change the evacuation area is: - answer a change in wind direction which protective action must be taken during shelter in place protection? - answer close all windows what should responders do with runoff from emergency decontamination? - answer divert into an area where it can be treated and disposed of when sheltering people in place, the citizens should be directed to - answer close all heating, ventilation, and AC systems prior to allowing responders to act, they should be briefed on - answer anticipated duration of the task which is a consideration when setting up an emergency decon area? - answer run off when dealing with a level III incident, it is expected that evacuation of people will cover an area of: - answer large scale evacuation statement 1: the hot zone is the area immediately around the release statement 2: the warm zone includes the contains the decontamination area statement 3: the command post is located in the warm zone - answer statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false statement 1: safety briefings should be a verbal relay of info on the written site safety plan statement 2: the safety briefing should stress the potential hazards that exist statement 3: safety briefings should include the reminder that the incident is also a crime scene - answer all three statements are true statement 1: the decision to evacuate or shelter-in-place is relatively easy to make statement 2: sheltering-in-place is a method of safeguarding people in a hazardous area statement 3: evacuation is always preferred over sheltering-in-place - answer statement 2 is true, statements 1 and 3 are false one of the keys to evidence preservation is - answer minimize the number of people working in the area at a terrorism event, when preserving evidence, the first responder should - answer minimize the number of people working in the area identify the five major functions within the Incident Management System (IMS) - answer command, ops, planning, logistics, and finance which task at a hazardous materials incident will be provided by logistics? - answer responsible for securing facilities, services, and equipment when the safety officer notices a critical emergency condition at an incident, they should - answer intervene in the unsafe action one the safety officer arrives on the scene, the IC should - answer have the SO review the incident action plan when determining the location of the command post, it is vital that - answer it is in a safe area level III incidents often require the technical expertise of ________ to be brought in for appropriate handling of such an incident - answer a specialist the person who advises the IC of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the - answer safety officer a level II incident is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from - answer a hazardous material response team at a hazardous materials emergency, the operations section serves the task of: - answer controlling the tactical portion of the incident the _________ is the location where coordination, control, and communications are centralized - answer command post at a hazardous materials incident, the SO's responsibilities include: - answer participating in preparation of an monitoring the safety plan work uniforms that provide minimal protection best defines EPA _________ protection - answer level D the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defines EPA __________ protection - answer Level B the type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n) - answer air-purification respirator SCBA and supplied air respirators, are two types of - answer atmosphere supplied devices exposure to _______ materials may cause freeze burns and frostbite - answer cryogenic the most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical protective equipment is - answer chemical compatibility the highest level of protection, based on EPA guidelines, from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is - answer level A the minimum level of respiratory protection for employees engaged in emergency response and exposed to an unknown hazardous substance is a(n)? - answer positive pressure SCBA which is a physical limitation of personnel working in a positive pressure SCBA? - answer physical condition this suit is used where splashed may occur, but where respiratory hazards are minimal - answer level C statement 1: when decontamination and doffing of PPE occurs in a cold environment, the body can cool rapidly statement 2: wet clothing extracts heat from the body up to 240 times faster than dry clothing, which can lead to hypothermia statement 3: hypothermia, while serious, is not a true medical emergency - answer statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false which are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon? - answer remain isolated until deconned a vapor tight suit which resists permeation by most chemicals is known as a: - answer level A heat stress is associated with: - answer muscle cramps in legs and abdomen what single item makes a level B ensemble different from the lower levels of PPE? - answer SCBA dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision, are all signs of: - answer heat exhaustion heat stroke is associated with - answer hot, dry, red skin penetration can be described as - answer movement of material through closures heat ________ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin - answer exhaustion symptoms of heat _________ include little or not sweating; hot, dry, red skin; deep, then shallow breathing; and rapid pulse - answer stroke when donning SCBA with a level A suit, the self-contained breathing apparatus is: - answer worn inside the PPE permeation can be described as - answer occurring on a molecular level statement 1: heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated statement 2: heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body statement 3: both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life threatening conditions - answer statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false cracking, charring, and discoloration are examples of ________ to a chemical garment - answer degradation the decon of crew memebers through the use of water and soap is known as - answer dilution what PPE would you use for a material that had a LC50 of 5 mg/kg, had a high vapor pressure and was dermally toxic - answer level A when dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should be used to minimize radioactive contamination? - answer time, distance, shielding in which type of chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives (CBRNE) call is structural FF gear and chemical protective ensemble inadequate? - answer explosive/mechanical statement 2: ice cooled vests may be recharged by freezing the vest statement 3: ice cooled vests typically recharge faster than phase-change style vests - answer statements 1 and 2 are true, statement 3 is false a vest where the cooling agent is circulated throughout the garment and operates on the principle of conductive heat transfer is known as a(n) ________ vest - answer water cooled an air cooling system consists of small airlines providing _________ cooling of the user by blowing cool air over the body inside a suit or vest - answer convective when using air purifying respirators, which is an operational component that should be considered prior to use? - answer the appropriate cartridge/filter is selected prior to use what is an operational consideration when using supplied air respirators? - answer the proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected one advantage of using level A PPE with supplied air respirators (type 3) and a vapor- protective suit is - answer that it permits extended operations the following advantages are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit? 1. it offers maximum level of protection to the user 2. positive internal pressure may help to minimize minor leaks 3. if the SCBA malfunctions, the user may have some time to reach a nonhostile environment - answer level A fully encapsulating (type 1) heat exhaustion is associated with - answer cool, moist skin which is a true life-threatening emergency that requires immediate attention? - answer heat stroke lowered body core temp is called - answer hypothermia diking, damming, and diverting are ________ options available for ________ control - answer defensive; spill as a first responder trained to the operations level, which spill control tactics can be conducted? - answer isolate and deny entry ________ is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas to reduce or control the pressure and/or to dispose of the product - answer flaring another technique for reducing or controlling pressure and/or disposing of the contents is called - answer flaring ________ is the most commonly used method for decontaminating personnel - answer dilution/washing the eight step process recommended for assessing a hazmat incident includes - answer hazard risk evaluation which principal characteristic of adsorption is true? - answer off gassing is reduced adsorption is the process of - answer adhering the contaminant to a surface a process in which a material is added to soak up a hazardous material to prevent enlargement or spread of the contaminated area is known as - answer adsorption when using water to extinguish a fire involving pesticides or a poison, the responder should consider the impact of - answer run-off contamination at a spill, defensive actions should include - answer diking or remote closing of a valve in some situations, it may be safe and acceptable for Operations-level responders to operate emergency remote shutoff valves on cargo tank trucks. this remote shut off on an Mc 306/DOT 406 will be located at the - answer left front corner which is a true statement regarding the safety precautions of remote shutoffs - answer they are usually well marked in red and in an easy-to-find location which statement is true regarding vapor dispersion? - answer the runoff may need to be contained