Firefighting Fundamentals: Assignments, Rescue Techniques, and Safety Procedures, Exams of Human Resource Management

Download Firefighting Fundamentals: Assignments, Rescue Techniques, and Safety Procedures and more Exams Human Resource Management in PDF only on Docsity! TCFP prep questions Question and Answers 2024 Verified Answers The NFPA requires that, at minimum pep clothing should be cleaned every _______ months a. 12 b. 6 c. 9 d. 14 - answer b. 6 National Fire Protection 1001 is? A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades C. Standard for fire department occupational safety and health program D. standard for Blood Borne Pathogen training - answer A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications Historically, the standard operating unit of a fire department is? A. the firefighter B. The company C. the battalion D. a platoon/shift - answer B. The company Where are medical requirements for firefighters specified? A. NFPA 1582 B. NFPA 1001 C. NFPA 1500 D. NFPA 1501 - answer A. NFPA 1582 Directions: Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from alternatives A-D Statement 1: A policy is a guide to thinking or decision making Statement 2: a procedure is a detailed plan of action Statement 3: Standard operating procedures apply to both emergency and non- emergency situations A. St. 1 is true; set 2 and 3 are false B. set 1 and 2 are false; set 3 is true C. St 1 is false; set 2 and 3 are true D. all statements are true - answer D. all statements are true Which is true regarding NFPA standards D. make specific and clear-cut assignments - answer d. make specific and clear-cut assignments One of the basic duties of an engine company is? a. attack and extinguish fires b. forcible entry C. perform technical rescue D. performs search and rescue - answer a. attack and extinguish fires In the fire service, the basic definition of the word rescue is? a. looking for victims who are in danger b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety c. performing CPR on a victim d. stabilizing a victim before transport - answer b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety Which is considered one of the basic tasks of a traditional ladder company crew? a. Securing a water source b. deploying hand lines c. Forcible entry d. high angle operations - answer c. Forcible entry What is the term for a rescue situation requiring specialized knowledge or training such as high-angle rescue or trench rescue? a. Class 1 rescue b. technical rescue c. barrel rescue d. Second stage rescue - answer b. technical rescue Which statement regarding NFPA standards is true? a. they are viewed as regulations. b. they are viewed as consensus documents c. they are law and, therefore, must be implemented d. they are adopted by OSHA - answer b. they are viewed as consensus documents Fire Department employee assistance programs provide ____________ help with problems that might affect performance. a. instantaneous b. confidential c. all-encompassing d. common knowledge - answer B. confidential NFPA 1500 provides guidance for which program to benefit firefighters? a. employee assistance programs b. collective bargaining agreements c. professional certifications d. Disciplinary plan - answer a. Employee assistance programs Which would be considered a program offered by an Employee assistance program? a. Driving course for adolescents b. dealing with physical problems c. junior firefighter programs d. Juvenile arson setter program - answer b. dealing with physical problems St. 1 Federal OSHA authority and regulations apply mainly to private sector and do not cover employees of state and local governments st.2 Federal OSHA has jurisdiction over every state in the U.S. st.3 Agencies must adopt OSHA as recognized national standards a. statements 1 and 2 are true;3 is false b. statements 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true c. Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false d. All three statements are true. - answer C. a. quid pro quo b. risk-benefit analysis c. validated needs assessment d. job task analysis - answer b. risk-benefit analysis What is the key part of the rehabilitation process? a. assimilation b. re invigoration c. re initiation d. revitalization - answer d. revitalization Over the last two decades, an average of more than __________ U.S. firefighters die each year in the line of duty. a. 150 b. 100 c. 300 d. 200 - answer b. 100 according to statistics compiled by the USFA approx. ______ firefighter injuries are reported each yea. a. 1,000-3,000 b. 10,000-20,000 c. 70,000-100,000 d. more than 1,000,000 - answer c. 70,000-100,000 Which is true regarding employee assistance programs (EAPs)? a. confidentiality does not apply in this circumstance b. services are available to firefighters and their families c. they are mandated by federal law d. attendance at programs is always mandatory - answer b. services are available to firefighters and their families The leading cause of firefighter fatalities is? a. cardiac arrest b. internal trauma c. asphyxiation d. crushing injuries - answer a. cardiac arrest The most common injuries for firefighters are? a. strains b. Bruises c. burns d. fractures - answer a. strains All F.D. radio operations must follow rules of the? a. NFPA b. DoT c. FCC d. code of Federal regulations - answer C. FCC The term used for the facility where the emergency call is routed is called the? A. public safety answer in point (PSAP) b. unified command (UC) C. emergency collection points (ECP) D. emergency operations center (EOC) - answer a. public safety answer in point (PSAP) What is the difference between basic 911 and enhanced 911 a. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone number and address b. enhanced systems are used only in the rural areas c. basic systems are more reliable than enhanced d. basic systems have the capability to provide the caller's telephone number and address - answer a. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone number and address c. an increase in the amount of static or interference d. the need for vehicle-mounted repeaters - answer a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving ________ is the transition between the growth and fully developed stages of fire. a. ignition temperature b. flash point c. backdraft d. flashover - answer d. flashover Thermal layering is? a. a column of heat rising from a source b. a process in which the molecules of a liquid are liberated into the atmosphere at a rate at which the molecules return to a liquid c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. - answer c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels When establishing a collapse zone around a building, the minimum distance from the building must extend a. the height of the building B. dependent on the building construction type c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building d. whatever the safety officer decides is safe - answer c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building the least desirable point to force entry into a structure is a. a check rail window b. a swinging door c. plate glass d. a revolving door - answer d. a revolving door Fire doors are operated a. manually, mechanically, electrically b. electrically, hydraulically, battery supplied c. by portable or fixed power units d. by manual or electrical power - answer a. manually, mechanically, electrically Slab doors are constructed in two configurations a. slab and panel b. solid core and hollow core c. raised and flat d. ledge and framed - answer b. solid core and hollow core Which is true regarding fire walls A. they are used for structural support so they are load bearing b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality c. fire walls do not provide any fire rating d. stones are a good source of fire walls as they do not spall - answer b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality the reaction of wood to fire conditions depends mainly on two factors a. where it is pressure treated and its diameter b. if it is interior or exterior and if synthetics were added C. where it is load bearing and its placement d. size of the wood and it's moisture content - answer d. size of the wood and it's moisture content The measure of how long structural assemblies will maintain their load-bearing ability under fire conditions is known as a. fire code approved b. noncombustible construction c. fire resistance rating d. NFPA rated - answer c. fire resistance rating The type of construction that presents the most hazard due to use of plywood I- beams is a. Type II b. Type III c. Type IV d. Type V - answer d. Type V Concealed spaces can be created when a second roof is constructed over an older roof. The second roof is called a a. support roof b. rain roof c. secondary roof d. trial roof - answer b. rain roof The term for the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building is the a. roof chase b. cockloft c. head space d. mantle - answer b. cockloft Type V construction is a. fire resistive b. wood frame c. all masonry d. masonry and synthetics - answer a. fire resistive A definition of _______ moisture in concrete is heated to steam and expands causing parts of the concrete to break away a. delamination b. depolymerization c. spalling d. stressing - answer c. spalling When exposed to intense heat, a lightweight metal truss can A. maintain its structural integrity B. often contain a fire specific to the area c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes d. be expected to support firefighting ops for at least 20 mins - answer c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes What type of construction, found on some older wooden building, provides a path of rapid fire extension? a. side split b. bungalow c. slate roof d. Balloon frame - answer d. Balloon frame Type 1 is ___________construction a. non combustible b. heavy timber c. ordinary d. fire resistive - answer d. fire resistive The weight of the building materials and any part of the building permanently attached or built in, such as heating, ventilation, and air conditioning units or water tanks, is the definition of a(n) _________ load a. impact b. fire c. design d. dead - answer d. dead At ______ Fahrenheit the length of a steel structural member will begin to elongate. a. 800 Which describes a horizontal member between arches that supports a type of truss less arched roof? a. purlin b. parapet c. Lamella d. bowstring - answer a. purlin A poisonous gas with the odor of almonds is A. sculpture dioxide Hydrogen cyanide c. propane D. chlorine - answer hydrogen cyanide Which is true regarding smoke a. complete combustion results in dark black smoke b. the lighter the smoke, the more fuel it contains c. the color of smoke does not indicate fuel content d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains - answer d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains What method of fire suppression is most widely used on Class A combustibles a. cooling b. removing of fuel c. smothering d. inhibition of chain reaction - answer a. cooling What does the E stand for in Lower _____ Limit (LEL) a. endothermic b. energetic c. explosive d. evolution - answer c. explosive what is classified as carcinogen a. carbon dioxide b. pyrolysis c. formaldehyde d. glucose - answer c. formaldehyde Convection is the transfer of heat through a. space by infrared rays b. a solid medium c. friction or compression d. liquid gases by circulating currents - answer d. liquid gases by circulating currents the mixture of fuel vapor to air that will ignite when subjected to an ignition source is known as the a. flash point b. vapor/fuel density c. explosive/flammable range d. burning point - answer c. explosive/flammable range the transfer of heat by the movement of gases or liquid is known as a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact - answer c. convection heat transfer that takes place in the form of electromagnetic waves is known as a. convection b. radiation c. conduction d. flame contact - answer b. radiation a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact - answer a. conduction Besides the growth stage, in what other stage is the fire fuel controlled A. incipient/ignition stage b. fully developed stage c. decay - answer c. decay the amount of heat energy released per unit of time as a given fuel burns is called a. ignition rate b. heat release rate c. heat energy rate d. rate of combustion - answer b. heat release rate Pyrolysis is defined as a. a physical reaction that produces heat b. the concentration level of a substance at which it will support ignition and continuous burning c. a state where a balance has occurred in a mixture d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. - answer d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. The temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion is the a. fire point b. flash point c. ignition point d. vapor density - answer a. fire point the ratio of the mass of a given volume of a liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is a. specific gravity b. vapor density c. flash point d. surface to mass ratio - answer a. specific gravity Rollover occurs when a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases b. everything in a confined area ignites at almost the same time c. unburned smoke is heated in the absence of O2 d. pressurized smoke rises to the ceiling and then begins to rapidly bank down - answer a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases Backdraft is .... A. a boiling liquid/expanding vapor explosion b. a layer of air that has the same temperature c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases d. sudden ignition of all of the combustible objects within a compartment - answer c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases A British Thermal Unit (BTU) is a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit b. a substance or an agent that causes two or more objects or parts to bind c. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by light the concentration level of a substance at which it will burn - answer a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit There are two types of ignition a. exothermic and endothermic b. piloted ignition and autoignition C. pyrolysis and spontaneous d, internal and external - answer b. piloted ignition and autoignition C. sustain a continual flame from vaporization D. gives off sufficient vapors to sustain flames - answer b. give off a sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air Vapor density is used to describe the density of a a. mist b. gas c. liquid d. solid - answer c. liquid What are the four commonly accepted types of energy a. mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and solar b. Fusion, decomposition, flame, and friction c. Mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and chemical d. Chemical, mechanical, nuclear, and spontaneous - answer c. Mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and chemical Convection is the transfer of heat by a. direct contact b. light waves through air c. Gas, such as liquids, air, or flames d. solid media, such as steel, copper, and direct flame - answer c. Gas, such as liquids, air, or flames Which is a warning signal of possible backdraft conditions A. smoke stained windows b. smoke observed pouring out a burned-through opening in the roof c. front door unaccountably wide open D. upper windows observed to be open or shattered - answer a. smoke stained windows The chemical reaction between two or more materials that changes the materials and produces heat, flames, and toxic smoke a. endothermic heat reaction b. exothermic heat reaction c. pyrolysis d. chemical free radicals - answer b. exothermic heat reaction While no exact temp is associated with flashover, a range from approximately _______degrees Fahrenheit is widely accepted. a. 400-900 b.900-1200 c. 1200-1500 d. 1500-1900 - answer b.900-1200 Extinguishing agents safe for use on fires in or near energized electrical equipment include a. dry powder, carbon dioxide, and AFFF b. carbon dioxide and dry chemical c. dry chemical, pressurized foam, and carbon dioxide d. AFFF, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical - answer b. carbon dioxide and dry chemical What is the term for water-soluble flammable liquids such as alcohols, acetone, and others a. Volatile fuels b. Polar solvents c. flammable surfactants d. Three-dimensional liquids - answer b. Polar solvents Fiberglass and Kevlar self-contained breathing apparatus cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every? a. year b. three years c. six years d. ten years - answer b. three years a. assist in communication b. helps control internal fogging c. increases user time d. makes breathing easier - answer b. helps control internal fogging Atmospheres are classified as O2 deficient when they fall below _________ percent O2 a. 25 b. 19.5 c. 16 d. 13.5 - answer b. 19.5 What type of SCBA is most commonly used for structural firefighting? a. closed-circuit b. Open-circuit c. Multi-circuit d. rebreather - answer b. Open-circuit All SCBA should be inspected a. bi-weekly b. quarterly c. after each use D. semi-annually - answer c. after each use The low alarm of the SCBA will sound when ____ percent of the cylinder's air supply is remaining a. 15 b. 18 c. 33 d. 30 - answer c. 33 NFPA 1971 covers a. structural PPE b. hazardous materials PPE c. firefighter safety standards d. physical abilities requirements - answer a. structural PPE The universal air rescue connection is a. the female quick fill inlet sound on the back of a SCBA by the cylinder valve b. used to refill cylinders normally c. the term used for a short section of hose used to share air between users' masks d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. - answer d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. What does NFPA 1981 address a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services b. Station/work uniforms c. Fire department occupational safety and health program d. structural firefighter ensembles - answer a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services How long does it take for the PASS device to alarm if the wearer becomes inactive a. 20 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 60 seconds - answer b. 30 seconds If apparatus sirens and noise levels exceed _____decibels, firefighters should wear hearing protection a. 30-40 b. 50-60 c. 70-80 d. 90 - answer d. 90 Which statement regarding work uniforms is correct c. four d. five - answer d. five A class A fire is fueled by a. electricity b. ordinary combustible materials c. liquids d. gases - answer b. ordinary combustible materials With respect to fuels, ordinary combustible materials include a. gasoline and oil b. plastics c. wood and paper d. animal fur - answer c. wood and paper A dry chemical extinguisher rated 60-B is capable of extinguishing a ________ flammable liquid pan fire. a. 40 sq ft b. 60 sq ft c. 120 sq ft d. 150 sq ft - answer b. 60 sq ft What advantage does CO2 have over a dry chemical extinguisher a. Co2 is not a hazard in an enclosed area b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts c. CO2 will prevent re-ignition longer than dry chemical extinguisher d. CO2 is effective at a greater distance - answer b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts A blue circle with a letter designation in the center would indicate an extinguisher is rated for use on ______fires a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - answer c. Class C Class B fires involve fuels such as a. flammable liquids b. energized electrical equipment c. combustible metals d. ordinary combustibles - answer a. flammable liquids A green triangle containing a letter would indicate extinguisher to be used on __________ fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - answer a. class A Energized electrical equipment and the surrounding area have to be protected with extinguishers that have a ______rating a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - answer c. Class C The preferred method of applying dry chemical agents to flammable liquid spill fires is to A. directs the stream into the flame and allows it to settle B. deflect the stream a minimum of 5 feet in front of the spill to prevent agitation C. directs the stream up-wind and allows it to be blown onto the fire D. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion - answer d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion Carbon dioxide extinguishers are generally rated for _______fires d. red square - answer b. yellow star Dry powder extinguishers are rated for use on ______ fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - answer d. Class D Which type of portable fire extinguisher is least likely to expose the operator to electrical shock a. dry chemical b. pressurized water c. Stored pressure AFFF d. Film-forming fluoroprotein - answer a. dry chemical Class K fires involve a. atomic material b. computer network equipment c. hazardous waste d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats - answer d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats The greatest concern associated with selecting too small of an extinguisher is that a. the contents will expel too quickly b. delicate equipment could be damaged by over application c. the operator has to get to close to the fire d. excessive amounts of dry chemical result in poor visibility - answer c. the operator has to get to close to the fire Regular dry chemicals (sodium bicarbonate-based and potassium-based) work on _________ fires a. only class D b. Class K c. Only Class B d. Classes B and C - answer d. Classes B and C The acronym for the 4-step process for proper use of a fire extinguishers is a. PASS b. RACE c. PACE d. DUMP - answer a. PASS the AFFF portable extinguishers use what means for expelling their contents a. springs b. vacuum c. Compressed air d. Gravity - answer c. Compressed air Which is true regarding fire extinguishers a. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers carried on fire apparatus b. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers found in occupancies c. NFPA 1901 requires one fire extinguisher d. NFPA 1901 requires a pressurized water fire extinguisher - answer a. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers carried on fire apparatus Water-mist fire extinguishers are safe to use on energized electrical equipment because the water they use is a. Deionized b. ordinary c. distilled d. sterile - answer a. Deionized There are two basic designs for handheld dry chemical extinguishers a. cartridge and stored pressure d. life safety - answer c. hoisting tools The kern of a kernmantle rope is the a. core b. sheath c. end d. weave - answer a. core About how much of a kernmantle rope's strength is provided by the mantle a. 10-15% b. 25-30% c. 45-50% d. 60-75% - answer b. 25-30% The application of a safety knot is to a. finish the other basic knots b. keep a rope from running completely through the pulley or eye c. form a loop that does not tighten d. connect two ropes together - answer a. finish the other basic knots The kind of loop that a figure 8 on a bight creates is a a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope b. loop that will tighten at the standing end c. sliding loop at the running end d. double loop at both ends - answer a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope The primary use of the _______is to attach a rope to a round object a. rescue knot b. becket/sheet bend c. bowline d. clove hitch - answer d. clove hitch The part of the rope that is used for hoisting or pulling is called the a. working end b. round turn c. running end d. standing part - answer c. running end The knot used to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together is the a., clove hitch b. square knot c. becket/sheet bend d. half hitch - answer c. becket/sheet bend A bowline is used primarily to a. join two ropes of unequal size b. form a loop around an object c. join tow ropes of the same size together d. connect and tighten a rope between two objects - answer b. form a loop around an object A class 1 harness, used during technical rescues, is known as a a. chest harness b. full body harness c. leg harness d. seat harness - answer d. seat harness When hoisting a ladder, the rope should be threaded and secured through the ladder _________the distance from the top. a. 1/6 b. 1/5 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 - answer c. 1/3 c. be thoroughly inspected after use d. used once - answer d. used once Two types of rope used in life-safety situations a. dynamic and static rope b. utility and kernmantle rope c. dynamic and utility rope d. twisted and braided rope - answer a. dynamic and static rope Life safety rope for firefighters should a. be able to tolerate high heat and direct flame impingement use after use b. be subjected to repeated impact loads c. use continuous filament fiber d. pass and annual inspection by the manufacturer - answer c. use continuous filament fiber Which describes a Class 1 harness? a. fastens around the waist and thighs or under buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load up to 600 lbs. b. fastens around waist and thighs or under buttocks and over the shoulders and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of 300lbs c. fastens around the waist and around the thighs or under the buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 lbs. - answer c. fastens around the waist and around the thighs or under the buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 lbs. Which is an unacceptable method of choice for drying ropes a. hose dryer b. suspended in hose tower c. direct sunlight d. spread on hose rack - answer c. direct sunlight When inspecting a kernmantle rope, what finding should alert the fire fighters to possible damage of the rope a. color change of the kern b. dampness of the mantle c. depressions of the kern d. stiffness in the mantle - answer c. depressions of the kern When choosing a route along which to respond to a reported hazardous materials incident, how should the approach be planned? A. From upwind and upgrade B. From upwind and downgrade C. From downwind and upgrade D. From downwind and downgrade - answer A. From upwind and upgrade On which type of hazardous materials incident should early responders establish a plan for decontamination? A. On incidents involving gases or vapors B. On incidents where direct contact with the material is likely C. On incidents involving offensive operations D. On all incidents - answer D. On all incidents Which is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud? A. A scientific functions-capable calculator B. Specialized computer software C. Preincident plan D. GPS triangulation - answer B. Specialized computer software Which is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE? A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand B. The availability of protective gear available C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. The responders' experience with this material - answer C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. Threshold limit value - answer D. Threshold limit value Which value is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week? A. Time-weighted average B. Long-term exposure limit C. Working exposure limit D. Ceiling level - answer A. Time-weighted average _______________ is an atmospheric concentration of any substance that poses an immediate threat to life. A. Ceiling level B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Maximum exposure limit - answer B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) Which Threshold Limit Value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted? A. Ceiling B. Maximum exposure limit C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit - answer A. Ceiling Which threshold limit value is the maximum concentration at which exposure should not exceed 15 minutes and should not be repeated more than four times per day? A. Time-weighted average B. Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit - answer C. Short-term exposure limit In the yellow and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified? A. They are in bold print. B. They are italicized. C. They are highlighted. D. They are underlined - answer C. They are highlighted. Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their: A. flammability or explosion hazard. B. toxicity. C. reactivity. D. instability. - answer B. toxicity. In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have __________ borders. A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green - answer D. green The ERG refers to the __________ as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public. A. evacuation area B. protective action distance C. initial isolation zone D. exclusion zone - answer B. protective action distance What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions? A. Exclusion zone B. Protective area C. Contaminated area D. Initial isolation zone - answer D. Initial isolation zone As it applies to hazardous materials response strategy, what does the term "isolation" mean? How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed? A. PPM B. As a percentage C. pH D. Units of weight per unit of volume - answer B. As a percentage What is the purpose of a secondary device? A. Initiate detonation of the primary device B. Kill and injure emergency personnel C. Backup in case of failure of the primary device D. Create misdirection or a diversion - answer B. Kill and injure emergency personnel What does the A stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device. B. Assist victims cautiously. C. Assess the scene for likely locations of secondary devices. D. Assume the presence of a secondary device at all scenes. - answer B. Assist victims cautiously. What does the EVADE acronym address? A. Decontamination B. Nerve agent poisoning C. Scene assessment D. Secondary devices - answer D. Secondary devices What does the D stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Deny entry. B. Do not become part of the problem. C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert. - answer C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. Diversion of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive - answer D. Defensive Dilution of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive - answer D. Defensive What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE? A. Creates standards B. Testing and certification C. Recommendations for usage D. All of the above. - answer A. Creates standards Where will you find recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions? A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. NFPA standards D. Material safety data sheets - answer A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. You will be exposed to splashes of the material. B. You will have to handle the material. C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material. D. None of the above - answer D. None of the above A. A B. B C. C D. D - answer C. C The use of EPA Level _____ protective clothing should only be used in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard. A. A B. B C. C D. D - answer D. D Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water? A. Technical B. Mass C. Emergency D. Forma - answer C. Emergency A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is transported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in __________ of ambulance personnel and the medical care facility. A. exposure B. contamination C. secondary contamination D. infection - answer C. secondary contamination Which is the best example of secondary contamination? A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material - answer D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material At a hazardous materials incident, what are the hot, warm, and cold zones? A. Control zones B. Isolation perimeters C. Protective action distances D. Groups or divisions - answer A. Control zones For hazardous materials responders, what is the most important element of personal protective equipment? A. Vapor protection B. Respiratory protection C. Splash protection D. Thermal protection - answer B. Respiratory protection Which is one of the three general types of IDLH atmospheres? A. Corrosive B. Oxygen-deficient C. Oxygen-enriched D. Combustible - answer B. Oxygen-deficient Which statement about positive-pressure SCBA is correct? A. They are also known as "rebreathers." B. They filter and condition atmospheric air for breathing. C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. D. They use compressed or liquid oxygen. - answer C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator? A. Reduced weight and bulk for the wearer B. Greater mobility A. A B. B C. C D. D - answer A. A Preincident plans should be available to a. the highest ranking field supervisor b. units that respond to that location c. the first due unit only d. staff officers only - answer b. units that respond to that location When calling a Mayday, you should a. transmit your location b. stay off the radio and listen for instructions c. throw your helmet out of a window to signal your location d. continued to talk until you are found - answer a. transmit your location Which best describes the technique to use when exiting through restricted passages while using SCBA a. completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and dragging the backpack behind you b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile c. Completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and pushing the backpack in front of you. - answer b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile What hould a firefighter do if their SCBA becomes dmaged or malfuncitons ? a. use the protective hood as filter b. deactivate the PASS device c. Remain calm and stay with their team d. run for the nearest exit as quickly as possible - answer c. Remain calm and stay with their team Firefighters should practice reduced profile maneuvers with SCBA, but they must realize that this procedure a. should be used at every fire b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape c. does not require much practice to attain proficiency d. is best left to the chief officers - answer b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape While inside the IDLH atmosphere, the technique of buddy breathing is a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH b. acceptable and should be implemented immediately c. required to be initiated by the rapid intervention crew d. unsafe unless performed by trained personnel - answer a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH Which is true regarding the physical limits of wearing a SCBA a. physical and emotional stress has little effect on firefighters wearing SCBA's b. different firefighters consume air at the same rates based on physical activities c. company officer should assign strenuous activites to the youngest FF to help older FF conserve air d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness - answer d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness What is one source of facts about a structure a. eyewitness accounts b. caller information c. a preincident plan d. Generalized assumption - answer c. a preincident plan The three crucial fireground ops that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are b. bedrooms c. highest floor d. the most severely threatened section - answer d. the most severely threatened section Which are characteristics of a primary search a. rapid and systematic b. slow and deliberate c. accomplished only with a charged hose line d. begun only after top-side ventilation is provided - answer a. rapid and systematic Primary search crews should always carry a. extra SCBA b. a positive pressure device c. a portable radio d. utility rope for lifeline - answer c. a portable radio The buddy system in search and rescue means ? a. all floors must be searched simultaneously b. it is done by teams of firefighters c. one firefighter should accomplish the task d. it is not recommended in large structures - answer b. it is done by teams of firefighters In what condition is the victim when the exit assist is appropriate ? a. unresponsive and unable to walk b. unresponsive, but able to walk c. responsive, but unable to walk d. responsive and able to walk - answer d. responsive and able to walk When is the secondary search performed ? a. after the fire is under control b. immediately upon completion of the primary search c. Only when the primary search discovered no victims d. Only when the primary search discovered victims. - answer a. after the fire is under control When finding a victim during a search and rescue at a structure fire, you should a. contact EMS and have them meet you at the front door b. communicate to Operations that you found a victim c. notify Command immediately d. pass the victim off to the raped intervention crew - answer c. notify Command immediately What type of drag provides a faster removal from a dangerous area than some other drags a. clothes drag b. blanket drag c. lower extremities drag d. webbing sling drag - answer d. webbing sling drag In the extremity carry a. both firefighters face each other b. both firefighters face the same direction c. firefighters will hold a victim by his ankles and wrists d. the victim and firefighters keep low to the ground - answer b. both firefighters face the same direction When performing search and rescue, you should a. have at least three rings to attach and extend the original search line b. use one inch kernmantle search rope of at least 100 feet c. use search rope devices for all structures over 1,000 square feet only d. know that implementing a search line system requires a team of three or more firefighters - answer d. know that implementing a search line system requires a team of three or more firefighters a. by the closest exit b. by the same routes they use everyday c. by the route designated in the fire pre-plan d. only if specific instructions to do so - answer b. by the same routes they use everyday A secondary search a. checks only those areas not covered by the primary search b. is often done before the fire has been controlled c. look for victims inside and outside the structure d. is less thorough than a primary search - answer c. look for victims inside and outside the structure In a three-firefighter interior search a. one firefighter stays at the door as an orientation point b. communication between firefighters is discouraged c. tools are not needed due to the increased number of search embers d. constant noise will alert victims to a firefighter’s presence - answer a. one firefighter stays at the door as an orientation point Thermal imaging cameras a. require no training before use b. are proven technology and will not fail c. make it impossible for a firefighter to become disoriented d. must never take place of a tried-and-true search techniques - answer d. must never take place of a tried-and-true search techniques The most appropriate search technique for a warehouse or supermarket a. light scan search b. perimeter search c. rope-guided search d. houseline search - answer c. rope-guided search The firefighter carry a. should be performed on unconscious victims only b. should not be used in a smoke-filled environment c. is suitable for a victim of any weight d. is designed for use on firefighters only, not civilians - answer b. should not be used in a smoke-filled environment When descending basement stairs, you should advance a. head first b. sideways c. backwards d. feet first - answer d. feet first _______ glass is most commonly used in side windows in vehicles. a. regular/plate b. laminated c. tempered d. wired - answer c. tempered Which belongs to the cutting group of firefighting tools a. Rabbet tool b. hydraulic spreader c. Spring-loaded center punch d. hydraulic shears - answer d. hydraulic shears Manufacturers of fiberglass and metal ladders require that the fly section be placed a. in, toward building b. out, away from building c. even with window sill d. either in or out, placement does not matter - answer b. out, away from building Which is an advantage of power inverters d. Pick - answer b. Adz After removing the lock cylinder, the firefighter must use a a. rotary saw to cut lock mechanism b. hydraulic spreader to remove the lock c. key tool d. C tool - answer c. key tool One way to force a lock is to physically pull the ____out of the door using an A- tool or a K-tool A. keyhole b. cylinder c. Hasp d. strike plate - answer b. cylinder The preferred method of forcing heavy-duty padlocks is the use of a a. Halligan tool b. Power saw c. duck bill d. rex tool - answer b. Power saw A _____ tool provides a mechanical advantage in forcing locks, opening doors, and forcing windows a. cutting b. striking c. power d. prying - answer d. prying Which procedure is a recommended method for making entry through barred windows a. cutting the bar assembly with a rotary saw or rebar cutter b. Prying the bar assembly with a pry bar c. Cutting the bar assembly using bolt cutters d. cutting the bar assembly with a jig saw - answer a. cutting the bar assembly with a rotary saw or rebar cutter The best tool for the removal of iron window bars is a a. hydraulic rebar cutter b. bolt cutter or crow bar c. pry bar d. crowbar and battering ram - answer a. hydraulic rebar cutter Metal swinging doors are difficult to force due to a. construction and design b. the locking mechanism c. weight and thickness d. the way they open - answer a. construction and design What equipment is recommended to force entry into a window covered with heavy iron bars or grates that is resistant to conventional equipment a. crowbar b. bolt cutters c. oxyacetylene cutting torch d. sledge hammer and wedge - answer c. oxyacetylene cutting torch When forcing entry through a locked wood checkrail/double-hung window, the pry should be made at the a. center of the upper sash b. center of the lower sash c. side of upper sash d. top of lower sash - answer b. center of the lower sash Opening concrete block walls is often referred to as a. breaching