TCOLE EXAM COMPILATION 2024 LICENSING EXAM, PRACTICE EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE, Exams of Law

Download TCOLE EXAM COMPILATION 2024 LICENSING EXAM, PRACTICE EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE and more Exams Law in PDF only on Docsity! TCOLE EXAM COMPILATION 2024 LICENSING EXAM, PRACTICE EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE (TEXAS COMMISSION ON LAW ENFORCEMENT) REAL EXAM 500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) | PROFESSOR VERIFIED LICENSING EXAM (250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS) 1. That condition of the human organism that consists of its health and disease status and risk potential. (1.1.1) A. Ergonomics B. Wellness C. Fitness D. Physiology ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Wellness 2. According to the Occupations Code, a person licensed as a peace officer must complete 40 hours of legislatively required continuing education training once every ______. (TCOLE.351) A. 12 months B. 24 months C. 36 months D. 48 months ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------24 months 3. According to Commission Rules, if a licensee's name is changed for any reason, such as marriage, divorce, or other court action, it must be reported to the Commission within _____ days. (TCOLE 211.27) A. 60 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------30 4. According to Commission Rules, if a current license holder is arrested for any offense above a Class C misdemeanor, the license holder shall report the facts of the arrest to the Commission in writing within _____. (TCOLE 211.27) A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 90 days D. 180 days ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------30 5. According to Commission Rules, the license of any licensee who does not meet the legislatively required continuing education by the expiration date will be _____. (TCOLE 1701.351) A. terminated B. lapsed C. expired D. defered ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Expired 6. Which of the following is a dis-advantage of having the professional model for law enforcement? (3.1.2) A. Increased cost of training and development B. Opportunity for educational benefits C. More effective problem solving techniques D. Limited entry-level opportunities for people from lower socioeconomic segments ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------More effective problem solving techniques 7. The expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices is the definition of _____. (3.2.2) A. professionalism B. ethical integrity 15. The 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the protection from_____. (TCTLM p. 1833) (4.1.6) A. unreasonable searches B. quartering of troops C. excessive bail D. self-incrimination ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Self-incrimination 16. The _____ Amendment limits the level of force that may be used to reasonable force. (TCTLM p. 1833) (4.1.5) A. 4th B. 5th C. 8th D. 14th ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------4th 17. The primary components of the American Criminal Justice System are _____. (4.3.1) A. probation, parole, and correctional B. police, courts, and correctional C. local, state, and federal police D. police, prosecution, and courts ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- police, courts, and correctional 18. _____ is law that defines the personal and property rights of individuals. (4.3.3) A. Civil law B. Criminal law C. Tort D. Mediation ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Civil law 19. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following is NOT a magistrate? (CCP 2.09) (6.2.1) A. Recorders of incorporated cities B. Justices of the Peace C. Supreme Court Justices D. District Attorneys ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------District Attorneys 20. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following are NOT Texas peace officers? (CCP 2.12) (6.2.2) A. investigator's of the District Attorney's Office B. law enforcement agents of the Alcoholic Beverage Commission C. arson investigators of a city, county, or the state D. special agents of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Special agents of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms 21. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court of Criminal Appeals does NOT _____. (CCP 4.04) (6.3.3) A. issue writs of habeas corpus B. hear cases involving the death penalty C. review decisions of civil cases D. review decisions of criminal cases ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- Review decisions of civil cases 22. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the ______ courts shall have original jurisdiction of all misdemeanors of which exclusive original jurisdiction is not given to the justice court, and when the fine to be imposed shall exceed five hundred dollars. (CCP 4.07) (6.3.5) A. county B. district C. municipal D. juvenile ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------County 23. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer who investigates a family violence allegation or who responds to a disturbance call that may involve family violence shall advise any possible adult victim of all reasonable means to prevent further family violence, including _____. (CCP 5.04) (6.4.1) A. making an arrest without a warrant B. calling in assistance from domestic violence experts C. giving written notice of a victim's legal rights D. giving written notice of an offender's legal rights ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Making an arrest without a warrant 24. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following is NOT a use of force option for dispersing a riot? (CCP 8.04) (6.4.3) A. command the group to disperse B. arrest the persons involved with a warrant C. arrest the persons involved without a warrant D. use any degree of force ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Use any degree of force 25. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an affidavit made before a magistrate charging the commission of an offense is called a/an_____. (CCP 15.04) (6.8.1) A. warrant B. complaint C. information D. capias ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Complaint B 26. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the security given by the accused that he will appear and answer before the proper court the accusation brought against him is known as _____. (CCP 17.01) (6.8.3) A. commitment B. promissory B. District C. Appeals D. Criminal Appeals ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------County 35. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is the term for a written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer, commanding them to take the body of the person accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law? (CCP 15.01) (6.6.2) A. capias B. commitment C. arrest warrant D. attachment ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Arrest warrant 36. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual's ethnicity or national origin rather than the individual's behavior? (CCP 3.05) (6.2.4) A. selective enforcement B. racial profiling C. cultural bias D. ethnocentrism ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Racial profiling 37. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by law, he _____ command a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance. (CCP 8.01) (6.4.3) A. may B. shall C. can D. will ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------May (13)38. _____ circumstances exist when there is not enough time to obtain a warrant and the officer must establish probable cause. (CCP 14.01) (7.1.2) A. Emergency B. Reasonable C. Special D. Exclusionary ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Emergency 39. The right to have an attorney present during questioning was affirmed by _____. (7.1.1) A. Mapp v. Ohio B. Terry v. Ohio C. Miranda v. Arizona D. Colorado v. Beltane ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Miranda v Arizona 40. Persons found in suspicious places, and under circumstances which reasonably show that such persons are about to commit some offense against the laws may _____. (CCP 14.03) (7.1.2) A. not be arrested without a warrant B. be arrested without a warrant C. only be arrested with a warrant D. only be detained for a short time ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- Only be detained for a short time 41. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer or any other person, may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when the offense is committed in their presence or within their view if the offense is classified as _____. (CCP 14.01) (7.1.2) A. a felony B. a tort C. a civil matter D. any violation of the law ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------A felony 42. In U.S. v. Carroll, the Supreme Court upheld an officer's right to search a vehicle's trunk when the officers have _____. (7.7.13) A. a search warrant B. reasonable suspicion C. probable cause D. inventory privilege ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Probable cause 43. Under temporary detention, a person _____ be required to identify himself. (7.1.8) A. cannot B. will C. should D. shall ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Cannot 44. The act of keeping back, or withholding, by design, a person, is the definition of _____. (PC 38.04) (7.1.8) A. incarceration B. sentencing C. detention D. custody ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Detention 45. The right of the officer to search the immediate area of control in a search incident to an arrest was affirmed in _____. (7.1.1) A. Terry v. Ohio B. Chimel v. California C. Schmerber v. California D. Brown v. Texas ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Chimel v California A. 6th B. 5th C. 4th D. 3rd ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------5th 54. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a citizen may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when the offense is committed within their view is a _____. (CCP 14.01) (7.1.2) A. felony B. traffic violation C. misdemeanor D. violation of city ordinance ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Felony 55. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following, occurring in the presence of an officer, requires an arrest, even without a warrant? (CCP 14.031) A. an individual is intoxicated B. a person is threatening to commit an offense C. there is a person the officer has probable cause to believe is violating a protective order D. there is a child violating a city ordinance ------CORRECT ANSWER------ -------There is a person the officer has probable cause to believe is violating a protective order 56. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer may break down the door of any house for the purpose of making an arrest if he has been refused admittance after giving notice of his authority and purpose under which of the following circumstances. (CCP 15.25)(6.6.2) A. felony B. misdemeanor C. traffic offense D. exigent circumstances ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Felony 57. The poisonous tree doctrine, which displays the notion that evidence obtained after illegal government action will be excluded from evidence, was affirmed in _____. (7.1.14) A. U.S. v. Robinson B. California v. Greenwood C. Wong Sun v. U.S. D. Michigan v. Long ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Wong Sun v. U.S. 58. You can frisk if there is ____ that the suspect may be in possession of a weapon. TCTM LG-12 (1)(2) (7.1.8) A. reasonable fear B. mere justification C. reasonable evidence D. mere suspicion ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Reasonable fear 59. When a search is conducted after a lawful arrest, within immediate control and contemporaneous with the arrest, the search is justified under _____ to lawful arrest. (7.1.11) A. warrant B. search C. incidental D. execution ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Incidental 60. What is generally considered to be that area of open space surrounding a dwelling, which is so immediately adjacent to the dwelling that it is part of the house? (7.1.13) TCTM L-45 (V.)(B )(1)) A. Open field B. Curtilage C. Encumbrance D. Continuance ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Curtilage 61. According to the Penal Code, what is NOT part of the element of an offense? (PC 1.07 (22)) A. admission of guilt B. forbidden conduct C. required culpability D. any required result ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Admission of guilt 62. According to the Penal Code, in the case of an "exception to an offense," the burden of proof lies with the _____. (PC 2.02(b)) A. defense attorney B. grand jury C. prosecuting attorney D. plaintiff ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Prosecuting attorney 63. According to the Penal Code, a person acts _____, with respect to the nature of their conduct, when it is the conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result.(PC 6.03(b)) (8.2.1) A. knowingly B. intentionally C. with criminal negligence D. recklessly ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Intentionally 64. According to the Penal Code, a person is criminally responsible as a party to an offense if the offense is _____. (PC 8.2.2)) (7.0.2) A. committed by his own conduct B. committed under duress C. committed intentionally D. committed recklessly ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Committed by his own conduct 72. A person who, in the course of committing theft, intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, or places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death, has committed what offense? (PC 29.02) A. Assault B. Robbery C. Aggravated robbery D. Manslaughter ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Robbery 73. A person knowingly causes serious bodily injury to another in the course of committing theft. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? (PC 29.03(a)(1)) (8.7.2) A. Burglary B. Robbery C. Aggravated theft D. Aggravated robbery ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Aggravated robbery 74. A person breaks into an attached garage, breaks into a vehicle parked in the garage, and steals a $1,500 computer from the back seat. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? (PC 30.02(a)(1)) (8.7.3) A. Burglary B. Burglary of a vehicle C. Theft over $1,000 D. Criminal trespass ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Burglary 75. According to the Penal Code, a person commits the offense of theft if they _____ appropriate property with intent to deprive the owner of the property. (PC 31.03(a) (8.7.4) A. willingly B. intentionally C. unlawfully D. knowingly ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Unlawfully (E 4)76. A person removes a $450 price tag from a retail item, replaces it with a $200 price tag and pays the lower price. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 32.47(a) (8.7.5) A. fraudulent destruction, removal, or concealment of writing B. misapplication of fiduciary property C. false statement to obtain property or credit D. securing execution of document by deception ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Fraudulent destruction, removal, or concealment of writing 77. A person steals a credit card with the intent to use it. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 32.31(b)(4)) (8.7.5) A. theft B. credit card abuse C. forgery D. fraudulent transfer of a credit card ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- Credit card abuse 78. A person knowingly prevents a writ from being served in a civil case. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 38.16) (8.8.3) A. hindering proceedings by disorderly conduct B. preventing execution of civil process C. interference of public duties D. barratry ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Preventing execution of civil process 79. A person enters the county commissioners' meeting and begins to shout obscenities. According to the Penal Code, that person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 42.05(a)) (8.9.1) A. disrupting meeting or procession B. disorderly conduct C. riot D. harassment ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Disrupting meeting or procession 80. According to the Penal Code, a person who knowingly solicits another to engage in sexual conduct with another person for compensation commits the offense of _____. (PC 43.03(a)) (2) A. prostitution B. promotion of prostitution C. aggravated promotion of prostitution D. compelling prostitution ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Promotion of prostitution 81. According to the Penal Code, a person who intentionally operates or participates in the earnings of a gambling place has committed the offense of _____. (PC 47.03(a)) (8.10.2) A. keeping a gambling place B. gambling C. gambling promotion D. bookmaking ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Gambling promotion 82. According to the Penal Code, what is the definition of a deadly weapon? (PC 1.07) (8.10.1) A. Any explosive or incendiary bomb B. Any bladed hand instrument that is capable of inflicting serious bodily injury C. Anything that, in its manner of intended use, is capable of causing serious bodily injury 90. A person intentionally or knowingly causes the death of an individual. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 19.02(b)(1)) (8.5.2) A. involuntary manslaughter B. capital murder C. murder D. voluntary manslaughter ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Murder 91. A person recklessly causes the death of an individual. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 19.04(a)) (8.5..1) A. capital murder B. murder C. negligent homicide D. manslaughter ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Manslaughter 92. A person operates an amusement ride while intoxicated, and by reason of that intoxication causes the death of another by accident or mistake. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 49.08(a)(2)) (8.10.4) A. intoxication manslaughter B. negligent homicide C. murder D. capital murder ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Intoxication manslaughter 93. According to the Penal Code, which of the following is a "short barrel" firearm? (PC 46.01(10)) (8.10.1) A. A rifle with a 16-inch barrel. B. A shotgun with an 18-inch barrel. C. A shotgun with an overall length of less than 26 inches. D. A rifle with an overall length of more than 26 inches. ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------A shotgun with an overall length of less than 26 inches. 94. According to the Penal Code, which of the following is NOT covered in Section 46.02, "unlawfully carrying weapons?" (PC 46.02(a)) (8.10.1) A. Handgun B. Shotgun C. Club D. Illegal knife ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Shotgun 95. A person, not the operator, knowingly possesses an open container (of alcohol) in a passenger area of a motor vehicle that is located on a public highway. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. (PC 49.031(b)) (8.10.4) A. public intoxication B. possession of alcoholic beverage in motor vehicle C. driving while intoxicated D. no offense ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Possession of alcoholic beverage in motor vehicle 96. According to the Penal Code, a license, certificate, permit, seal, title, letter of patent, or similar document issued by a government, by another state, or by the United States is a _____. (PC 37.01(2)(c)) (8.10.3) A. court record B. governmental record C. official document D. contract ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Governmental record 98. A person is in possession of a burning tobacco product in an elevator. According to the Penal Code, what offense has been committed? (PC 48.01(a)) (8.10.3) A. No offense B. Smoking tobacco C. Disorderly conduct D. Criminal mischief ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Smoking tobacco 98. A person retains a child younger than 18, knowing this violates the express terms of a judgment. According to the Penal Code, what offense has been committed? (PC 25.03(a)(1)) (8.6.1) A. Interference with child custody B. Harboring runaway child C. Agreement to abduct from custody D. Enticing a child ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Interference with child custody 99. According to the Penal Code, conduct merely affording a person an opportunity to commit an offense does not constitute _____. (PC 8.06) (9.5.3) A. mistake of fact B. mistake of law C. duress D. entrapment ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Entrapment 100. According to the Penal Code, a person is justified in using deadly force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to _____. (PC 9.32(a)) (18.1.5) A. protect him against the unlawful use of deadly force B. protect him against the other's verbal provocation C. prevent the other's imminent commission of robbery D. prevent the other's imminent commission of kidnapping ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Protect him against the unlawful use of deadly force 109. According to the Transportation Code, the period beginning one-half hour before sunrise and ending one-half hour after sunset is _____. (TC 541.401)(1)) (9.1.4) A. daytime B. nighttime C. dusk D. twilight ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Daytime 110. According to the Transportation Code, an injury to any part of the human body and that requires treatment is a _____. (TC 541.401)(7)) (9.1.3) A. bodily injury B. human injury C. treatable injury D. personal injury ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Personal injury 111. A person disposes of litter on the public highway. According to the Health and Safety Code, what offense has been committed? (HS 365.012)(a)) (9.1.5) A. Illegal dumping B. Littering C. Improper disposal D. Illegal disposal ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Illegal dumping 112. According to the Transportation Code, an "unmarked crosswalk" only exists _____. (TC 541.201) (9.1.1) A. at intersections B. at marked crossings on streets C. at intersections with sidewalks on either side D. where not marked ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------At intersections 113. According to the Transportation Code, a temporary prohibition against driving a commercial motor vehicle is what type of order? (TC 522.003)(23)(a)) (9.1.7) A. Prohibited-operations B. Restrained-service C. Restrictive-operations D. Out-of-service ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Out-of-service 114. According to the Transportation Code (TC 545.251 (a) (3)), an operator approaching a railroad grade crossing shall stop if a railroad engine approaching within approximately _____ feet of the highway crossing emits a signal audible from that distance. (9.1.3) A. 500 B. 1000 C. 1500 D. 2000 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------1500 115. According to the Transportation Code (TC 545.256(1)(2)(3)), an operator emerging from an alley shall stop the vehicle _____. (9.1.12) A. at the stop line B. before moving on a sidewalk C. before moving into a crosswalk D. at the curb of the street ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Before moving on a sidewalk 116. According to the Transportation Code (TC 545.302 (b) (2)) an operator may not, except momentarily to pick up or discharge a passenger, stand or park an occupied or unoccupied vehicle within how many feet of a fire hydrant? (9.1.12) A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------15 117. According to the Transportation Code, an operator giving hand signals shall give them from _____. (TC 545.107) (9.1.11) A. the driver's side of the vehicle B. the left side of the vehicle C. the driver's seat D. any place the signal is visible ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------The left side of the vehicle 118. According to the Transportation Code, an operator may not drive at a speed greater than is reasonable and _____ under the circumstances existing. (TC 545.351) (9.1.14) A. safe B. lawful C. prudent D. excessive ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Prudent 119. According to the Transportation Code (TC 547.331), a vehicle equipped with hazard lamps to warn other vehicle operators of a vehicular traffic hazard shall have the lamps visible at a distance of at least _____ feet in normal sunlight. (9.1.17) A. 200 B. 300 C. 400 D. 500 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------500 120. According to the Transportation Code (TC 547.324), a turn signal lamp mounted on the rear of a vehicle shall emit _____ light. (9.1.17) A. red or amber B. amber or yellow A. freeway B. highway or street C. roadway D. throughway ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Highway or street 129. According to the Transportation Code, an operator moving around a rotary traffic island shall drive only to the _____ of the island. (TC 545.059)(c)) (9.1.9) A. right B. left C. inside lane D. outside lane ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Right 130. According to the Transportation Code, an operator passing another vehicle shall return to an authorized lane of travel before coming within _____ feet of an approaching vehicle, if a lane authorized for vehicles approaching from the opposite direction is used in passing. (TC 545.054)(b)(1)) (9.1.9) A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------200 131. According to the Transportation Code (TC 545.414 (a)) it is unlawful to operate an open bed pickup truck with a child younger than _____ in the open bed. (9.1.15) A. 12 B. 15 C. 18 D. 21 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------18 132. According to the Transportation Code, an operator shall dim headlights when an approaching vehicle is within _____ feet. (TC 547.333)(c)(1)) (9.1.7) A. 1000 B. 500 C. 250 D. 200 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------500 133. According to the Rules of Civil Procedure, the document that commands a sheriff or constable to take into their possession the property, if to be found in their county, and keep the same subject to further orders of the court, is known as a writ of _____. (RCP Ch 696) A. garnishment B. possession C. replevin D. sequestration ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Sequestration 134. According to the Rules of Civil Procedure, a distress warrant may be filed with a _____. (RCP Ch 610) A. municipal court B. justice of the peace C. county court D. district court ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Justice of the peace 135. According to the Penal Code, sexual harassment is an element of which offense? (PC 39.03)(a)(3) (8.8.4) A. Abuse of official capacity B. Official oppression C. Misuse of official position D. Official misconduct ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Official oppression 136. According to the Rules of Civil Procedure, a citation may normally be served on any day except a _____. (TRCP 6) (11.3.4) A. legal holiday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. national holiday ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Sunday 137. According to the Property Code, a writ instructing the tenant and all persons claiming under the tenant to leave the premises immediately is a writ of _____. A. sequestration B. garnishment C. possession D. attachment ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Possession 138. According to the Alcoholic Beverage Code, a mixed beverage permittee may normally sell and offer for sale mixed beverages between the hours of _____ on any day except Sunday. (TABC 105.03)(b)(12.1.5) A. 7 a.m. and midnight B. 1 a.m. and midnight C. 10 a.m. and noon D. Noon and midnight ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------7 a.m. and midnight 139. According to the Health and Safety Code, a substance that has an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or is capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction- sustaining liability is classified as a/an _____. (HSC 481.002)(30) (13.1.1) A. hallucinogen B. stimulant C. opiate A. unemancipated minor B. emancipated minor C. unemancipated teenager D. teenager ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Unemancipated minor 148. According to the Family Code, _____ means the adult with whom the child resides. (FC 51.02)(3)) (14.1.2) A. custodian B. guardian C. parent D. party ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Custodian 149. According to the Family Code, a child may be detained in a juvenile processing office only for _____. (FC 52.01)(c) (14.1.2) A. intoxilyzer proceeding B. medical treatment C. pre-trial hearing D. the issuance of warnings to the child ------CORRECT ANSWER----------- --The issuance of warnings to the child 151. According to the Family Code, the absence of a child on three or more days or parts of days within a four-week period from school is _____. (FC 51.03)(b)(2)) (14.1.2) A. delinquent conduct B. conduct indicating a need for supervision C. habitual conduct D. truant conduct ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Conduct indicating a need for supervision 150. According to the Family Code, a child is defined as a person who is at least _____ years of age and under 17 years of age. (FC 51.02)(15) (14.1.2) A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------10 152. Field notes give an officer the advantage of being able to _____. (15.1.1) A. make repeated contact with witnesses and involved parties B. provide more details in reports and testimony C. rely on memory for most of the details of an event D. record personal observations that should not appear in reports ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Provide more details in reports and testimony 153. Brief notations concerning specific events and circumstances that are recorded while fresh in the officer's mind and used to prepare a report are _____. (15.1.1) A. statements of events B. interview tactics C. report writings D. field notes ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Field notes 154. Chronological reports organize information by _____. (15.4.4) A. when each thing happened B. where each thing happened C. who did each thing D. why each thing happened ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------When each thing happened 155. As defined by the Penal Code, _____ is failing to return to custody following a temporary leave for a specific purpose. (PC 38.01 (2)) (17.1.2) (PC 38.1.13) A. unauthorized departure B. escape C. evading arrest D. evasion ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Escape 156. Peace officers are granted the authority to use force by the Texas _____. (CCP 15.24) (17.1.2) A. Occupations Code B. Constitution C. Code of Criminal Procedure D. Penal Code ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Penal Code 157. According to the Penal Code, deadly force is NOT justified to _____. (PC 9.34)(a)) (17.1.3) A. prevent criminal mischief at night B. preserve someone's life in an emergency C. prevent the imminent commission of arson D. prevent someone from committing suicide ------CORRECT ANSWER---- ---------Prevent someone from committing suicide 158. According to the Penal Code, an amount of force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in any manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing, death or serious bodily injury is ____. (PC 9.01) 32)) (17.3) A. reasonable force B. deadly force C. excessive force D. necessary force ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Deadly force B. Constraints C. Perspectives D. Ethical appeals ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Constraints 167. Which of the following is one of the helpful tools used in verbal persuasion? (17.3.6) A. Empty hand control B. Empathy C. Modeling D. Command ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Empathy 168. One of the tools an officer uses to maintain a psychological and physical edge is _____. (17.2.2) A. demonstrated alertness B. logical necessity C. resistance D. aggression ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Demonstrated alertness 169. The good faith defense for an officer is enhanced when following the _____ of the department. (17.4.2) A. verbal standards B. implied policies C. fair labor standards D. written directives ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Written directives 170. A police supervisor has a/an _____ duty to intervene to stop officers who are engaging in excessive force in their presence. . (17.4.2) A. affirmative B. required C. mandatory D. necessary ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Affirmative 171. Which of the following is NOT a consideration used by the courts to determine if unreasonable force was used? (17.4.2) A. motivation for force B. need for force C. area in which offense occurred D. reasonableness of force ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Area in which offense occurred 172. One of the greatest assets to use in dealing with a violator is _____. (17.2.2) A. crowd control B. self-control C. verbal judo D. compulsion ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Self-control 173. Handcuffs are only a _____ restraining device. (18.2.4) A. permanent B. temporary C. legal D. flexible ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Temporary 174. When two officers are interviewing one subject, the second officer's position should be______. (18.2.3) A. directly behind the subject B. directly behind the primary officer C. to the right or left of the subject D. to the right or left ahead of the primary officer ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------To the right or left of the subject 175. Which of the following is a force option? (17.3.1) A. Self-control B. Balance C. Awareness D. Professional presence ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Professional presence 176. Weaponless strategies include _____. (18.1.2) A. verbal communication B. cultural awareness C. touching D. maintaining distance ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Touching 177. Which of the following is considered a risk factor in the physical process of arrest? (18.2.2) A. Officer's equipment B. Supportive spectators C. Weather conditions D. V formation ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Supportive spectators 178. Justification of baton use includes _____. (18.1.3) A. physical stature of offender B. reasonable suspicion C. offender's perception D. weaponless strategies ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Physical stature of offender 179. One of the advantages of the rear approach to suspects is _____. (18.2.3) A. may provoke physical resistance B. surprise C. loss of surprise D. communication ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Surprise 188. This is one of the most frequent contributors to law enforcement collisions. (22.3.3) A. Peer pressure B. Backing C. Traction D. Capability ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Backing 189. _____ generally refers to groups of people with common ancestry and physical characteristics. (5.1.1) A. Ethnicity B. Culture C. Discrimination D. Race ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Race 190. It is important to be aware of one's _____, so that one can double check decisions to ensure accurate and fair decision-making. (5.1.1) A. biases B. beliefs C. fears D. attitudes ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Biases 191. Having an adverse judgment or opinion formed beforehand or without knowledge of or examination of the facts is _____. (5.1.1) A. attitude B. discrimination C. prejudice D. stereotyping ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Prejudice 192. _____ is an organized and relatively unchanging combination of a person's knowledge and feelings about someone, or something that influences him/her to behave in a certain way in regards to that person. (5.1.1) A. Attitude B. Culture C. Prejudice D. Discrimination ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Attitude 193. Characteristics of the police subculture are _____. (2.2.3) A. objectivity and open-mindedness B. secrecy and solidarity C. optimism and liberalism D. objectivity and optimism ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Secrecy and solidarity 194. Within in the traditional police service model, most decisions are made at the management and mid-management level with little _____ involvement. (2.1.5) A. supervisor B. commissioner C. court D. citizen ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Citizen 195. Every law enforcement officer is a crime prevention officer by the technical definition as well as by the _____ responsibilities of the job. (24.8.1) A. moral B. assigned C. specialized D. recognized ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Moral 196. Prevention of crime is the soundest of all _____ theories. (24.1.1) A. enforcement B. patrol C. criminological D. educated ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Criminological 197. Speed, mobility, and visibility increase preventative potential, and are advantages of _____ patrol. (24.3.3) A. mounted B. patrol C. automobile D. bicycle ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Automobile 198. When an officer is alone, more _____ is devoted to patrol functions and duties. (24.3.4) A. time B. attention C. observation D. service ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Attention 199. A/An _____ is able to take in everything around a given situation and then sort out the relevant from the irrelevant. (24.3.5) A. inspector B. skilled observer C. detective D. field training officer ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Skilled observer 200. Patrol officers should practice the technique of refraining from using the word "_____" during the violator interview while conducting vehicle stops. (24.5.1)(4) A. We B. You C. I B. proactive, reactive C. automobile, foot D. one officer, two officers ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Preventive, apprehension 210. Mail boxes, utility poles, automobiles, and brick walls are all examples of _____. (24.1.3) A. cover B. security C. concealment D. shielding ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Cover 211. All of the following are persistent symptoms of increased arousal in post traumatic stress disorder except _____. (25.1.1) A. difficulty falling or staying asleep B. difficulty concentrating C. irritability or outbursts of anger D. ambivalence towards danger ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- Ambivalence towards danger 212. The normal response to trauma follows a similar pattern called the _____.(25.1.1) A. crisis reaction B. ripple effect C. post traumatic stress disorder D. equilibrium stage ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Crisis reaction 213. Physical arousal associated with fight or flight cannot be sustained; eventually it will result in _____. (25.1.1) A. shock B. denial C. resentment D. exhaustion ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Exhaustion 214. Which of the following is not one of the phases of a victim's reaction to crime? (25.1.1) A. Shock B. Recoil C. Frustration D. Panic ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Recoil 215. To prevent the disqualification of family violence victims from receiving crime victim compensation, officers should arrest the _____ instead of arresting both parties when responding to family violence calls. (26.2.1) A. primary aggressor B. dominant partner C. aggressive partner D. defensive partner ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Primary aggressor 216. According to the Family Code, _____ is an act by a member of a family or household against another member of the family or household that is intended to result in physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or sexual assault. (TFC 71.004 (1)) (26.2.2) A. domestic violence B. domestic assault C. family assault D. family violence ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Family violence 217. According to the Family Code, a protective order is effective for the period stated in the order, not to exceed _____. (TFC 85.025 (a) (1)) (26.2.5) A. 30 days B. 90 days C. 1 year D. 2 years ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------2 years 218. Up to 80% of crisis situations can be diffused through _____. (26.3.1) A. counseling B. arrest C. listening D. separation ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Listening 219. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a magistrate may extend the detention period on a person who is arrested in the prevention of family violence by a period not to exceed _____ hours. (CCP 17.291 (b)) 22.2.6) A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 60 ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------48 220. According to the Family Code, _____ means an act by an individual that is against another individual with whom that person has had a dating relationship and that is intended to result in physical harm. (TFC 71.021 (a)) (26.2.2) A. family violence B. dating violence C. domestic abuse D. battery ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Dating violence 221. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer _____ arrest, without a warrant, a person the peace officer has probable cause to believe has violated a protective order, if the offense is committed in the presence of the peace officer. (CCP 14.03) (b)) (22.2.6) A. may C. Injection D. Ingestion ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Injection 230. One of the effects that a hazardous material event has on the environment is _____. (28.1.3) A. expense to governmental entities B. panic of the public C. exposure to carcinogens D. temporary damage to the water system ------CORRECT ANSWER------- ------Temporary damage to the water system 231. Which of the following is NOT a necessary duty when conducting a preliminary investigation? (29.1.4) A. Establish whether a crime has been committed B. Locate and interview the victim and witness C. Release evidence to the property owner D. Protect the crime scene ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Release evidence to the property owner 232. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what information should the arresting officer collect from a victim of family violence, at the time of arrest, to allow for an attempt to give personal notice to that victim of the imminent release of the accused offender? (CCP 5.05)(29.1.4) A. Driver's license number B. Address and telephone number C. Social security number and driver's license number D. Driver's license number and protective order number ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Address and telephone number 233. Wet evidence such as bloodstains, semen, and mud must be _____. (29.7.15) A. packaged in plastic bags B. allowed to dry before packaging C. refrigerated D. wrapped in paper first ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Allowed to dry before packaging 234. During the processing of a crime scene, what potential problem should be taken into consideration when determining how an area will be searched? (29.7.3) A. Number of persons that were involved at the scene B. Type of crime that was committed C. Physical characteristics of the area to be searched D. Length of time since the crime was committed ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Physical characteristics of the area to be searched 235. The first officer responding to an offense against a person should be observant of the _____ upon arrival at the scene. (29.3.1) A. type of offense committed B. persons and vehicles in the area C. report filing procedures D. plan of a crime scene search ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- Persons and vehicles in the area 236. _____ of witnesses is when witnesses, including officers, are ordered by the judge to leave the courtroom, stay close to the courtroom, and not discuss the case with other witnesses or jurors. (29.10.7) A. Exclusion B. Dismissal C. Subpoena D. Calling ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Exclusion 237. During the _____ examination the prosecutor elicits facts from the officer, who directs his testimony to the jury or judge. (29.10.4) A. re-direct B. re-cross C. direct D. side bar ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Direct 238. The _____ sketch is useful when no camera is available. (29.7.11) A. perspective B. projective C. schematic D. detailed ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Perspective 239. In order to facilitate proper orientation of a crime scene sketch, _____. (29.7.15) A. a legend must be present B. a scale must be prepared to 1/4" C. an arrow pointing to the north must be present D. it must be enlarged for court purposes ------CORRECT ANSWER--------- ----An arrow pointing to the north must be present 240. A/An _____ is the explanation of symbols used to identify objects in the sketch. (29.7.10) A. map point B. symbol sector C. identification section D. legend ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Legend 241. When conducting a crime scene search, a strip search is among the most effective for _____ searches. (29.7.2) A. outside 250. Examples of _____ are what you see, hear, or smell that indicates there may be criminal activity. (7.1.5) A. suspicion B. cause C. justification D. search ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------Suspicion PRACTICE EXAM (100 QUESTIONS) 1. What is the purpose of a Writ of Habeas Corpus? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------To test the legality of the detention of a person who has been arrested 2. An adverse judgement or opinion formed beforehand or without knowledge of or examination of the facts defines: ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------prejudice 3. What is the most common form of prejudice? ------CORRECT ANSWER- -------------Racial 4. The state court with final appellate jurisdiction in death penalty cases is - -----CORRECT ANSWER--------------the Texas Court of Criminal Appeals 5. Holding a person for a person for a limited time, but who, as yet, is not answerable to a criminal offense defines: ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- ----Temporary Detention 6. To drive a bus with a seating capacity of more than twenty-four (24) passengers, you must have a: ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Class B CDL drivers license 7. The act of regarding one's culture as the center of the universe and hence as the basis for all comparisons with other cultures defines: ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------ethnocentrism 8. Which of the following is a force option? a) Awareness b) Balance c) Self-control d) Professional presence ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Professional presence 9. Chronological reports organize information by _____. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------when each thing happened 10. Which of the following Texas courts has jurisdiction over all the misdemeanors involving official misconduct: ------CORRECT ANSWER------ --------District Court 11. According to the Transportation Code, what is the minimum light transmission percentage allowable for window tinting? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------25% 12. A driver may operate a vehicle on an improved shoulder to the right of the main traveled portion of the roadway..... a) to stop, stand or park b) to accelerate prior to entering the main traveled portion of the roadway c) to decelerate prior to making a right turn d) at any time to avoid a collision e) all of the above ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------all of the above 13. "A device or a drug that is unsafe for self-medication and that is not included in Schedules I through V or Penalty Groups 1 through 4 of Chapter 481 Health and Safety Code" defines: ------CORRECT ANSWER--- -----------Dangerous Drug 14. A juvenile may be taken into custody for the following reasons: ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------Pursuant to the laws of arrest of the Penal Code and probable cause that the child has engaged in delinquent conduct. 15. According to the Penal Code, what is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the actor was compelled by threat of serious bodily injury to engage in the proscribed conduct? ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------- Duress 16. An emotional symptom of stress can be. ------CORRECT ANSWER------ --------Depression 17. If a peace officer sexually harasses another person while in uniform during his or her duties as a public servant, he/she has committed what offense? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Official Oppression 30. A vehicle passing another vehicle to the left shall return to an authorized lane before coming within ________ feet of approaching vehicles. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------200 31. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an affidavit made before a magistrate charging the commission of an offense is called a/an _______. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------complaint 32. Every vehicle upon a highway within this State at any time from a half hour after sunset to a half hour before sunrise and at any other time when, due to insufficient light or unfavorable atmospheric conditions, persons and vehicles on the highway are not clearly discernible at a distance of ____________ feet ahead shall display lighted lamps and illuminating devices as required. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------1,000 33. According to Section 8.05 of the Penal Code, It is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the actor engaged in the proscribed conduct because he was compelled to do so by threat of imminent death or serious bodily injury to himself or another. This is called _________. ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------Duress 34. According to the Occupations Code, a person licensed as a peace officer must complete 40 hours of legislatively required continuing education training once every _______. ------CORRECT ANSWER------------ --24 months 35. In a physical arrest, the police role is essentially ______________. ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------defensive 36. A commitment is a court order ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------to place an accused in jail. 37. The police role in physical arrest is two-fold, to protect the public and __________. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------to take the violator into custody 38. Which of the following groups or persons does NOT fall under the jurisdiction of the Transportation Code while upon a roadway? a) Motor vehicle b) A person riding an animal c) A person riding a bicycle d) A motor-driven cycle e) All of the above fall under the jurisdiction of the Transportation Code ----- -CORRECT ANSWER--------------All of the above fall under the jurisdiction of the Transportation Code 39. "Not having the normal use of mental or physical faculties by reason of the introduction of alcohol, a controlled substance, a drug, a dangerous drug, or any combination of two or more of those substances, or any other substance into the body" is a definition of ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- ----intoxicated 40. Word gets around if an officer is _____________________________ in one's work, and one's ability to serve is increased. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Fair and Objective 41. An operator may not, except momentarily to pick up or discharge a passenger, stand or park an occupied or unoccupied vehicle within _____ feet on the approach to a flashing signal, stop sign, yield sign or traffic control signal located at the side of a roadway. ------CORRECT ANSWER-- ------------30 42. In the SFST Walk and Turn test, the suspect must be instructed to take nine steps up the line and ____ steps back down the line. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------9 43. According to Commission Rules, if a current license holder is arrested for any offense above a Class C misdemeanor, the license holder shall report the facts of the arrest to the Commission in writing within _______. -- ----CORRECT ANSWER--------------30 days 44. Which of the following public officials is not a magistrate? ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------District Attorneys 45. An officer who uses excessive force may be subject to a) Department liability b) civil lawsuit c) criminal charges d) B and C ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------d) B&C , civil lawsuit & criminal charges 46. ____________ is the cap which holds down all the other areas in the wellness pyramid. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Self-responsibility 60. Communication is: ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------the transfer of meaning 61. According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court of Criminal Appeals does NOT ______. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------review decisions of civil cases 62. In relation to use of force, which of the following does not improve an officer's self-control? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------reactionary gap 63. A flashing red signal is ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------a stop sign 64. A person reaches through an open car window and takes a music CD worth $15. What offense has occurred? ------CORRECT ANSWER------------ --Burglary - Motor Vehicle 65. A complaint is not required to: ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------be signed by a magistrate. 66. Pedestrian shall yield the right-of-way to a vehicle on the highway if crossing a roadway at a place: ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------other than in a marked crosswalk 67. Which of the following is the minimum level of blood-alcohol concentration that defines a person as being under the influence of intoxicating beverages in the state of Texas. ------CORRECT ANSWER------ --------0.08 68. _______________ means a child who is accused, adjudicated, or convicted for conduct that would not, under state law, be a crime if committed by an adult. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------status offender 69. ______ generally refers to groups of people with common ancestry and physical characteristics. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Race 70. "The entire width between the boundary lines of every way publicly maintained when any part thereof is open for public use for purposes of vehicular travel" is: a) A highway b) A street c) A roadway d) A trafficway e) Both a highway and a street ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Both a highway and a street 71. Which of the following is NOT considered marihuana? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------The oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant 72. Physical Fitness is defined as the condition of the body which enables an individual to use his/her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, agility, power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience of _____________________. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------fatigue and exhaustion 73. Title 8 of the Texas Penal Code (chapters 36, 37 and 38): ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------codifies certain illegal behaviors of public officials 74. Within the traditional police service mode, most decisions are made at the management and mid-management level with little ______ involvement. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------citizen 75. ______________ and "dump" mean to discharge, deposit, inject, spill, leak, or place litter on or into land or water. ------CORRECT ANSWER------- -------Dispose 76. An aggressive act committed by any person, which does not amount to an assault is necessary to accomplish one's objective, is the definition of: -- ----CORRECT ANSWER--------------force 77. Which of the following is (are) validated field sobriety test? ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------One leg stand 78. According to Commission Rules, the license of any licensee who does not meet the legislatively required continuing education by the expiration date will _______. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------expire a) External stress to the agency b) Internal stress to the agency c) Financial problems of parents d) Both A and B ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------Both A and B 93. Section 1.03 - Objectives of this Code, identifies six (6) objectives that are sought. #3 states: "To insure a trial with as little delay as possible.' Which Constitutional Amendment does this objective support? ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------Sixth Amendment 94. Proper proof of insurance would require which of the following: a) Vehicle identification number b) policy number c) Expiration date d) all of the above e) none of the above ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------all of the above 95. Delinquent Conduct is conduct, including traffic offenses, that violates the Penal Laws of this State. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------False 96. According to the Penal Code, a person commits the offense of theft if they ______ appropriate property with intent to deprive the owner of the property. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------unlawfully 97. ________________ means to deliver a controlled substance other than by administering or dispensing the substance. ------CORRECT ANSWER--- -----------distribute 98. In the immediate flight after committing a theft in a store, the offender bumps into a woman, knocking her down and causing bodily injury. The offender should be charged with: ------CORRECT ANSWER-------------- Robbery 99. Cruel and unusual punishment are prohibited by which amendment? --- ---CORRECT ANSWER--------------8th Amendment 100. The ______ Amendment limits the level of force that may be used to reasonable force. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------4th Amendment STUDY GUIDE Which of the following is not an example of sexual harassment? (4.2.5) ----- --CORRECT ANSWER---------------Making negative comments about one's religious beliefs Which search is based on "reasonable suspicion" that the inmate is concealing contraband ? (10.2.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- Strip search For minor infractions, privileges can be taken away for up to ___________ days. (11.4.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------15 Which of the following are methods to avoid a set-up? (11.6.6) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Look and act professionally at all times United States Codes 241 and 242 are both criminal violations and contain penalties to include all of the following except ___________. (11.5.1) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Mandated classes Protection from cruel and unusual punishment Like the refusal of medical treatment, is a constitutional rights for inmates based on which amendment? (11.2.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------8th When talking on the radio during an inmate transport make sure to ___________. (10.7.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------be brief, be professional For major infractions disciplinary separation can be given for up to ___________ days. (11.4.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------30 Circumstances constituting federal civil rights violations are found in all of the following statutes except ___________. (11.5.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------18 USC 1983 The intake screening has to be conducted when? (7.2.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Immediately upon entering facility Upon an inmate's admission a health file shall be initiated and ___________ assessed. (9.1.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- Mental problems and medical/physical problems Indirect legal responsibility for what an inmate does under your supervision is ___________. (11.5.5) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Vicarious liability According to TCJS 269.1 whose responsibility is it to establish a record system for detention that includes a daily record of the number of inmates in the facility? (10.1.8) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Sheriff All of the following are acceptable forms of visitor identification except ___________. (8.3.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Student ID Which of the following programs is NOT considered mandatory per TCJS? (8.1.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Involuntary Work Assignments Which of the following is NOT a federal law related to civil rights? (11.5.1) -- -----CORRECT ANSWER---------------Government Code 461.059 For what purpose is it necessary to conduct cell searches? (10.3.3) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------For safety of officers, civilians, and inmates Examples of "outside workers" include all of the following except ___________. (10.1.16) -------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- Clergy/bondsman Access to the media visitation, and telephone use are constitutional rights for inmates based on which amendment? (11.2.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------1st HSC Section 81.046 states that ___________________ information is not public record and may not be released. (9.2.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER-- -------------Communicable diseases Impartiality requires that no person be treated ___________. (4.4.2) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Unjustly, unfairly, with prejudice Counseling should be given to any offender when he/she breaks ___________. (11.4.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Minor infractions All of the following are purposes of a grievance except ___________. (11.3.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Gives inmates a forum to air their every complaint This is NOT true about an inmate grievance system? (11.3.1) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Grievance boards consist of staff only The chain of custody establishes that evidence was in all of the following conditions except ____________________. (13.1.5) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Altered from its original form Regarding food services a written menu must be approved and reviewed ___________ by a licensed dietitian for compliance with national recognized allowances for basic nutrition. (8.2.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Annually Custody reassessment review is conducted within which timeframe of the initial assessment? (7.2.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------30 to 90 days The 8th Amendment has two sections: right to bail and protection from ___________. (11.2.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Cruel and unusual punishment United States Code 241 addresses ________ Against Civil Rights of the individual. (11.5.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Conspiracy Direct contact and droplet spread are modes of ___________ transmission. (9.2.4) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Direct The total number of meals is important information for administration to use in budget justification and ___________. (8.2.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Planning for future meals Applicants for a basic county ions license have ___________ chances to pass the qualifying exam before being required to repeat training and obtain another endorsement. (2.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- 3 Which of the following descriptions relates to L2 Form? (2.1.6) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Medical condition declaration The two primary supervision styles utilized in jails include _________________ and ________________. (3.1.4) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------direct/indirect Corrections officers are responsible for ___________ safety? (3.1.5) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------inmate and Staff Which of the following descriptions relates to F5 Form? (2.1.6) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Separation of licensee TCOLE sets minimum standards for all of the following groups, except ___________. (3.1.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------emergency medical technicians Who has the burden of proof in the administrative court proceeding related to contesting a termination report? (2.1.11) -------CORRECT ANSWER------ ---------Chief Administrative Officer ___________ is the state regulatory agency for local law enforcement and county ions systems in the state of Texas. (3.1.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------TCOLE If a TCOLE licensee has not been commissioned for more than two years and has not met continuing education requirements during that time, his or her license is considered to be inactive. This means ___________. (2.1.2) - ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------the licensee must meet current standards and pass the current licensing exam The written petition for contesting information in termination report must be received within ________________. (2.1.11) -------CORRECT ANSWER---- -----------30 days Which of the following descriptions relates to L2 Form? (2.1.6) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Medical condition declaration ___________ is the regulatory agency for all county jails and privately operated municipal jails in the State of Texas. (3.1.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------TCJS The Occupations Code provides the statutory authority for ___________ to establish rules that law enforcement agencies and ions officers must follow. (2.1.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------TCOLE Basic county ions licensees must notify TCOLE if they ___________. (2.1.10) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------receive a dishonorable military discharge, are arrested on Class C misdemeanor charges, have name and address changes The ___________ jail design impedes surveillance and requires a greater number of staff to provide adequate surveillance. (3.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------linear ___________ rules are created to establish minimum standards relating to training and licensing, as well as to require the submission of reports and other information needed by the agency. (2.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------TCOLE Which chapter of the Texas Administrative Code Part 7 lists the requirements for inclusion on the Memorial Monument? (2.1.13) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------a. 217 b. 223 c. 227 d. 229 There are two _______ month periods in the training cycle. (2.1.7) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------24 List the three primary jail concepts in Texas. (3.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------a. Linear, podular remote, direct supervision b. Minimum, medium, maximum c. Intermittent, indirect remote, direct podular d. Linear, podular indirect, podular direct The ___________ jail design has more physical barriers than the podular direct design. (3.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------a. linear b. intermittent c. podular indirect d. podular An adverse judgment or opinion formed beforehand or without knowledge of or examination of the facts is ___________. (4.3.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------prejudice Which of the following is the first step to maintain your professional behavior during a sensitive situation? (4.4.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---- -----------Gather information about the person(s) A concept that can be used to improve staff and inmate relations includes ___________. (3.1.6) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------firm but fair conduct Members of this group generally have common ancestry and share cultural patterns. (4.3.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------ethnicity Why are inmates discouraged in manipulating medium jailers? (11.6.3) ----- --CORRECT ANSWER---------------The process takes too long A/An ___________ prevents discrimination and stereotyping. (4.4.1) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------meritocracy Which Chapter of the Penal Code concerns Official Oppression/Sexual Harassment? (3.1.7) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Ch. 39 ___________ are any person(s), organization, or entity that may be affected by what you do. (4.1.6) -------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- Stakeholders Accountability, one of the five principles of public service, stands for which of the following? (4.1.5) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Government is to be conducted openly, efficiently, and honorable Which of the following are methods to avoid a set-up? (11.6.6) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Look and act professionally at all times Stresses for correctional officers are work-related and only occur in jails. (4.5.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------False Understaffing, rotating shifts, supervisor demands, and overtime are all examples of ___________ sources of stress? (4.5.4) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------organizational Which of the following descriptions relates to L2 Form? (2.1.6) ------- CORRECT ANSWER---------------Medical condition declaration What are warning signs that inmates are attempting to set-up a jailer? (11.6.5) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Asking for special favors b. Offering gifts c. Improperly touching d. Trying to develop a personal relationship The principal focus of ethics is moral problems, as opposed to the formation of habits of good character. (4.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---- -----------False Regarding one's culture as the center of the universe is the definition of ___________. (4.3.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------ethnocentrism The three phases of the set-up are observation and selection, _________, and compromised. (11.6.4) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------hooks ___________ rules are created to establish minimum standards relating to training and licensing, as well as to require the submission of reports and other information needed by the agency. (2.1.3) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------TCOLE All people share common ___________, such as health, food, and positive self-image. (4.4.1) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------needs Which of the following is NOT a reason for inmates to play games? (3.1.7) - ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------Rapport/morale Law enforcement personnel are one of the most likely groups to seek help for PTSD. (4.5.2) -------CORRECT ANSWER---------------False