Texas& Arkansas Esthetician Written State Board Exam Review + Test 1 & 2 Questions with co, Exams of Nursing

Download Texas& Arkansas Esthetician Written State Board Exam Review + Test 1 & 2 Questions with co and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 Texas& Arkansas Esthetician Written State Board Exam Review + Test 1 & 2 Questions with correct answers 1. What is sanitation?: answer- A chemical process reducing the number of disease-caus- ing germs on cleaned surfaces to a safe level. 2. What is sterilization?: answer- COMPLETELY Destroys all microbial life, incl. spores 3. * What is Disinfection?: answer- A chemical process that uses specific products to destroy harmful organisms 4. What does OSHA stand for?: answer- Occupational Safety and Health Administration 5. * What is OSHA responsible for? answer- : Addresses issues relating to handling, mix- ing, storing and disposing of products. 6. What is Fungi?: answer- Single celled organisms that grow in irregular masses that include molds, mildews, and yeasts. 7. * What are Parasites?: answer- Organism that grow, feed, and shelter on or inside another organism while contributing nothing to the survival of that organism 2 2 / 10 8. * What is EPA? What do they do?: answer- Environmental Protection Agency. Registers all types of disinfectants sold and used in the US. 9. What is the Circulatory System?: A system that controls the steady circulation of blood through the body by means of the heart and blood vessels. 10. What is the endocrine system?: specialized glands that affect the growth, development, sexual activities, and health of the body 11. What is the Excretory System?: Group of organs that purify the body by elimination of waste matter 12. What organs are in the excretory system?: Kidneys, Liver, Skin, Large Intes- tine and Lungs 13. What is the Respiratory System?: Body system that enables breathing, sup- plies the body with oxygen + eliminates carbon dioxide as a waste product. 14. What type of skin do light emollients contribute to?: Oily Skin 15. What type of skin do heavy/thick emollients contribute to?: Dry Skin 16. What Skin Type would benefit most from an Oatmeal Mask?: Acne Prone Skin 17. * What Skin Type responds best to a Clay Mask?: Oily Skin 18. * What type of mask draws out impurities?: Clay Mask 5 32. What are elements?: The simplest form of chemical matter and only contains 1 type of atom. 33. What are atoms?: The basic unit of matter 34. What are molecules?: A Chemical combination of two or more atoms in definite (fixed) proportions 35. What is "organic"?: Natural Sourced Ingredients that are grown without the use of pesticides or chemicals 36. * Where do you store disinfected items?: In a closed container 37. * What is a contraindication for Hair Removal?: 1. Client using Accutane 2. Client with any open wounds 3. Client who recently had a chemical peel 38. * What is Herpes Simplex Virus 1?: Viral infection that consists of vesicles on a red swollen base, Cold Sores and Fever Blisters? 39. * According to TDLR, where can chemicals not be stored in your salon?: - The Restroom 40. * How often are salons inspected according to TDLR?: once every 2 years 41. * What is the minimum amount of sinks a residential spa must have?: 2. 42. What are the 2 types of currents?: Direct + Alternating 6 43. Define a conductor.: Any material that conducts electricity Ex: Metal, Copper, Ordinary Water (lakes and rivers). 7 44. Define a Non Conductor.: Material that does not conduct electricity . Ex: Rubber, Silk, Wood, Glass, and cement 45. Should you place your Fire Route in a Conspicuous Place?: Yes 46. * What is Tinea?: A contagious condition caused by fungal infection. *It is not a parasite 47. * What is another name for good bacteria?: non-pathogenic 48. What do we do to stop the spread of Pathogens?: Follow Disinfection and Exposure Incident protocols 49. A device used to direct an electric current from an electro therapy device to the clients skin?: Electrode 50. What Refers to the poles of an electrotherapy device?: Polarity 51. What symbol and color is an Anode?: Symbol (+), Red 52. What symbol and color is a Cathode?: Symbol (-), Black 53. All living things have ?: Carbon 10 61. What face shape is widest at the forehead, the jaw, and the checks.: Square 62. What is Camouflage Makeup used for?: To hide pigmentation issues such as under-eye discoloration, acne, scars 63. * What color corrects redness?: Green color corrector 64. If a client wants to get eyelash perming and eyelash tinting, which should go first?: Eyelash perming 65. What are free radicals?: An atom or molecule that has one or more unpaired electrons. 66. What Combats Free Radicals, free radical damage, and *sun exposure*: Antioxidants 11 ~Most popular antioxidants are Vitamin A(Retinol), Vitamin C, Vitamin E 67. What are your skin functions?: Protect, Excretion,Sensation, Heat Regulation, Absorption 68. What are the layers of the skin?: Epidermis Dermis Subcutaneous Tissue 69. What are the layers of the Epidermis? Hint: Starts with the word Stratum (5) layers: Stratum Corneum Stratum Lucidum Stratum Granulosum Stratum Spinosum Stratum Germinativum Come Let's Get Sun Glowed 12 70. What are the 2 Layers of the Dermis?: papillary -above reticular -below 71. What are the 2 duct glands housed in the Dermis ?: Sebaceous Glands (Secrete Oil) Sudoriferous Glands (Secrete Sweat) 72. What is the difference between Primary Lesions and Secondary Lesions?: Primary are flat,non palpable changes in in skin color or elevation with fluid inside. Secondary are piles of material on the skin surface like a scab or a depression in the skin. 73. What is the difference between a Papule and a 15 is the lack of pigment. 78. * When you have developed a allergy to products you often use in your spa, this is a form of?: Contact dermatitis 79. * What is Atopic (or seborrheic) Dermatitis?: A chronic, relapsing form of dermatitis that consist of excess inflammation from allergies. 80. What is psoriasis?: itchy skin disease characterized by red patches covered with whitesilver scales; caused by an many cells replicating too fast 16 81. What is Folliculitis?: Hair growing beneath the skin(ingrown hairs) causing a bacterial infection. 82. * What are characteristics of Rosacea?: Visible Vessels and skin sensitivity such as redness. It can also advance to pustular- type Breakouts 83. What are 4 Types of Skin?: Normal Combination Oily Dry 84. What is a Skin Condition?: Your skin's current status due to extrinsic and intrinsic factors.(sun exposure, Puberty, inappropriate skin care. 17 85. What is Skin Type?: Classification that describes the skin a person was born with. (Normal, Oily, Dry) 20 102. What should be used to apply lashes?: Tweezers 103. * Where are the appropriate body parts for patch testing and what is the wait time?: The inner arm near the elbow, or behind the ear. 24 Hour wait time. 21 104. What ingredients are needed for mature skin?: -Ceramides -Humectants -Emollients based on skin type -Vitamin C -Peptides -Retinoids 105. What is the purpose of a mask?: Allows estheticians to treat several skin conditions at the same time, and are beneficial for at home care. 106. * The technique of manually removing comedones from follicles is called ?: Extractions 107. What does a massage achieve on a client?: Promotes relaxation, stimulates blood circulation, helps muscle tone, cleanses skin of impurities, softens sebum, helps slough off dead skin cells, helps relieve muscle pain and provides a sense of well being. 108. What are good treatments for dry skin?: Hydrating and exfoliating treat- ments. 109. What are good treatments for aging/mature skin?: Hydrating + Revitalizing skin, providing skin analysis often, have a consistent anti-aging focused treatment plan 22 110. What are good treatments for sensitive skin?: Cold compresses! Gentle cleansers, avoid stimuli that could trigger a negative response 111. What are treatments for oily skin?: Deep cleansing, purifying products, gal- vanic current, steam + oil controlling BHA's. 112. How should you treat skin with acne?: Eliminate Black Heads, thorough cleansing mask that include AHA and BHA, Extractions must be done gently without pain. 113. What are the different types of facial massage movements?: Petrissage, Tapotemnet, + Effleurage 114. What skin type is Dr. Jacquet Massage movement best for?: Oily skin 115. What is electrotherapy?: Devices that enhances facial treatments. 116. * What is the most Common magnification for Magnifying lamps (Loupe)?: 5 Diopters (5 x 10 magnification= 50 times the magnification) 117. * Under the Wood's Lamp, what color is Healthy/Normal Skin?: Blue + White 118. * What is a rotary brush used for?: Light manual exfoliation of the skin 119. * How long does it take for a steamer to heat up?: 5-10 minutes 25 129. * Where would a record of previous treatments, medication, and contraindications be found?: The intake form 130. * What does MSDS stand for?: Material Safety Data Sheet 131. * Who protects clients health safety and welfare?: State regulatory agen- cies 132. What is the study of microbes called?: Microbiology 133. True or False? You must be at least 17 years old to obtain an Esthetics license.: True 134. True or False? 1 hour of Sanitation and 3 hours of industry related topics must be completed in order to renew your license.: True 135. True or False? An application must be submitted to obtain a license.: True 136. True or False? A fee is NOT required before receiving your license.: False 137. True or False? A high school diploma is required to become eligible for an Esthetics license.: True 138. True or False? EPA registered disinfectants do not need to be bactericidal or fungicidal.: False 26 139. True or False? A licensee may perform services on clients with ringworm, conjunctivitis and swollen infected skin.: False 27 140. True or False? All equipment, implements, tools and materials shall be properly cleaned and disinfected in accordance, prior to servicing the client.- : True 141. It is required that the Esthetician wash their hands with prior to performing any service on a client.: soap or liquid hand sanitizer 142. True or False? A total of 750 hours is the only requirement to qualify for an Esthetician license.: False 143. What is the phone number of TDLR?: 1-800-803-9202 144. What is the cost of the written examination?: $50 145. * What is the cost of the practical examination?: $72 146. * A person holding an esthetician specialty license may perform only the practice of cosmetology defined in Sections 1602.002 (a): (4), (5), (6), (7), and (10). 147. * Describe the 5 practices estheticians are allowed to perform under TDLR Regulations.: #4 : cleansing/stimulating/massaging a person's scalp, face, neck, or arms. #5 : beautifying a person's face, neck, or arms using cosmetic preparation #6: administering facial treatments 30 2 / 14 15. Local infection: Infection present in a small, confined area indicated by a pus-filled boil, pimple or inflammation: 16. Antiseptics: Products used to arrest or prevent the growth of microorganisms on the skin: 17. Disinfection: Second level of infection that doesn't eliminate bacterial spores: 18. High frequency energy waves: Instruments can be pre-cleaned using: 19. OSHA: Regulatory agency that enforces safety and health standards in work place is 20. MSDS: Key info proving helpful during an allergic reaction can b found on the: 21. Sterilization: Highest level of infection control that destroys all small organisms, including bacterial spores: 22. UV Light Sterilizer: Machine that uses UV light to kill bacteria in a dry setting: 23. Autoclave: A pressurized, steam heated vessel that sterilizes objects with high pressure and heat, or pressurized steam: 24. Chemiclave: Machine that sterilizes surgical instruments with high pressure, high temp vapor: 25. Sanitation, disinfection, and Sterilization: Levels of infection control 26. Anatomy: Study of organisms and systems of the body: 31 27. Cells: Basic units of life: 28. Cytoplasm: Production department of he cell 29. Mitosis: Human cells reproduce through: 30. Anabolism: Process o building up larger molecules from smaller ones: 31. Catabolism: What phase of metabolism causes a release of energy within the cell? 32. Tissues: Groups of cells of the same kind of makeup: 33. Nerve tissue: Tissue that carries messages to and from the brain and coordi- nates body functions: 34. Muscular: Type of tissue that contracts, when stimulated, to produce motion: 35. Organs: Separate body structures that perform specific functions: 36. System: Group of organs that perform one or more vital functions for the body: 37. Skeletal: Physical foundation of the body: 38. Flat bones: Plate-shaped bones in the skull 39. Frontal: Bone that extends from the top of the eyes to the top of the head to form the forehead: 40. Parietal bones: Two bones that form the crown and upper sides of the head: 41. 9: How many of the 14 bones that compose the facial skeleton are involved in facial massage? 42. Cervical vertebrae: 7 bones that form the top part of the spinal column: 43. Thorax: Spine, sternum, and rubes make up the: 44. Phalanges: 14 finger bones 45. Levator: Term used to describe muscles function to lift up: 46. Myology: Not s type of muscle tissue 47. Voluntary: Which muscles respond to conscious commands? 32 48. Non-striated: Muscles that respond automatically to control various body func- tions: 49. Tendons: Bands of fibrous tissue that attach the muscle to the bones: 50. Epicranius: Scalp is covered by a broad muscle called the: 51. Procerus: Muscle that draws brows down and wrinkles the area across the bridge of the nose: 52. Zygomaticus: Muscle that is located outside the corners of the mouth up and back, as in laughing: 53. Buccinator: Muscle responsible for compressing cheeks to release air outward- ly: 54. Temporalis: Mastication muscle that is located above and in front of the ear and both opens and closes the jaw: 55. Sternocleido mastoideus: Muscles that causes the head to move from side to side and up and down: 35 81. Zygomatic nerve: Nerve that extends to the side of the forehead, temple, and upper part of the cheek: 82. Auriculo temporal nerve: Nerve that extends to the ear and to the area from the top of the head to the temple: 83. Facial nerve: Seventh nerve and primary motor nerve of the face: 84. Cervical: Branch of the facial nerve that extends to the muscles on the sides of the neck: 85. Temporal: Branch of the facial nerve that extends to the muscles of the temple, side of the forehead, eyebrow, eyelid, and upper cheek: 86. Radial: Nerve of the arm that extends down the thumb side of the arm into the back of the hand: 87. Liver: Organ that converts and neutralizes ammonia from the circulatory system to urea: 88. Larynx: Lower respiratory tract consists of all the following except: 89. Integumentary system: Skin and its layers make up the: 90. Skin physiology: Study of skins functions: 91. Excoriation: Not a function of the skin: 92. Immune cells: Provides the body with its first line of defense against infection by identifying foreign substances in the skin: 93. Tendons: Not one of the main layers of the skin: 94. Epidermis: Known as the outermost and protective layer of the skin: 95. Keratinocytes: Epidermis is primarily composed of: 96. Stratum corneum: Toughest layer of the epidermis: 97. Desmosomes: Keratinocytes on the surface of the skin remain tightly intercon- nected by intercellular connections called: 36 98. Stratum spinosum: "Spiny" irregular shaped cells are located in the: 99. Stratum granulosum: Layer of skin in which the cells are more regularly shaped and resemble many tiny granulates: 100. Collagen: Strong protein substance that, when broken down, forms bundles that strengthen and give structure to the skin: 101. Dermis: Referred to as the "true skin": 102. Mast cells: Not a receptor of sensation in the dermal layer of the skin 103. Feet: Apocrine glands are NOT located on the: 104. Underarm area: Eccrine glands are most abundant in all areas except the: 105. Androgen: Male hormone that influenced the production of the sebum: 106. Subcutaneous layer: Structure that insulated and acts as a shock absorber to protect the bones: 107. Ligaments: Connective tissue that holds bones to other bones to form joints: 37 108. Keratinocytes, which consist of a protein called keratin: The epidermis is primarily composed of: 109. Stratum corneum: Keratinocytes are located in the: 110. Lesion: Refers to a change in the structure of the skin: 111. Crust: Secondary lesion that is a dried mass that is the remains of an oozing sore: 112. Atopic dermatitis: Hereditary rash, or an inflammation of the skin, character- ized by dry, sensitive, irritated skin is called: 113. Hives: Allergic reaction that produces an eruption of wheals: 114. Rosacea: Chronic inflammatory condition of the face in which the small capil- laries of th face become displayed and inflamed: 115. Closed comedo: Another name for a whitehead: 116. Benzoyl peroxide: An ingredient used to dry, exfoliate, and help in killing bacteria: 117. Bromidrosis: Foul-smelling perspiration caused by yeast and bacteria break- ing down sweat 118. Skin tags: Small elevated growths that can easily be removed by a physician: 119. Albinism: Congenital disease that results in the failure of the skin to produce melanin 120. Nevus: Birthmark or congenital mole: 121. Lentigo: A Freckle is called: 122. Acute: A term used to identify a rapid onset of an intense and severe condition: 123. Chronic: Term used to describe symptoms that are frequent and continuing: 40 153. Reticular dermis: Lowest layer of the dermis, is in direct contact with subcu- taneous layer: 154. Dermis: Connective tissue is in the: 155. Epidermis: Epithelial tissue is in the: 156. Cartilage: Lines the parts of the bone that would otherwise rub against each other in joints: 157. Macule: Discoloration on the skins surface 158. Wheal: Solid formation above the skin often caused by insect bites or an allergic reaction: 159. Papule: Small elevation on the skin, usually inflammatory, that doesn't contain pus: 160. Vesicle: Fluid-filled elevation in the skin caused by accumulation of fluids or blood just below the epidermis. Also known as a blister: 161. Bulla: Similar to a Vesicle, but larger: 41 162. Nodule or Tumor: Solid mass within the skin that may be soft, hard, fixed or moving: 163. Excoration: Mechanical abrasion of the epidermis that appears bright to dark red because of dried blood, and occurs when insect bites, scabs, or breakouts are scratched: 164. Scale: Shedding of dead skin cells of the uppermost layers of the epidermis that may be dry or wet: 165. Scar: Formation resulting from a lesion, which extends into the dermis or deeper and is part of the normal healing process: 166. Fissure: Crack or like in the skin that can penetrate as deep as the dermis. Can be dry or moist, but usually occurs when skin loses its flexibility due to exposure of wind, cold, or water. 167. Ulcer: Open lesion visible on the surface of the skin that may result in loss of portions of the dermis and may accompanied by pus. Skin services cannot be performed when this condition is present: 168. Atopic dermatitis: Hereditary rash, or inflammation of the skin that can start in childhood and continue through adulthood: 169. Contact dermatitis: Rash caused by an allergic reaction from contact sub- stances such as dyes, detergents, nickel, fabrics or plants. Characterized by red, itchy, irritated eruption in the specific area of contact with the substance: 170. Seborrheic dermatitis: Form of eczema that is a common rash with redness and scaly, pinkish-yellow patches that have an oily appearance. Usually affects the scalp, but can also affect the face, chest, and creases: 171. Psoriasis: Inheritable disease that can be triggered by environmental factors if a person is genetically predisposed. Produced an excess of thick, scaly, silvery 42 skin patches surrounded by a red area often seen on elbows, knees,!back and scalp: 172. Eczema: Characterized by dry or moist lesions, an eruption of small vesicles, and watery discharge. Generally accompanied by inflammatory redness and itching: 173. Impetigo (do not perform any skin services until all lesions are healed)- : Highly contagious bacterial infection caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus. Produces a honey yellow, crusted lesion, usually on the face, scalp, and or neck: 174. Tinea: Ringworm 175. Tinea corporis: Fungal infection affecting trunk, legs or arms, characterized by a pink to red rash and itching: 176. Tinea versicular: Commonly known as tri-color yeast infection that is non- con- tagious but produces hypopigmentation areas, usually on chest, neck, back, and arms: 177. Verruca: Warts are also called: 178. Candida albicans: Common skin infection caused by yeast: 45 198. Actinic keratosis: Common premalignant growth that is irregular in shape, scaly, red-pink, that feels rough to the touch. 199. Melanoma: Most dangerous skin growth. Evolve from flat or raised pigmenta- tion on the body: 200. Leukoderma: A congenital disorder that occurs when the skin lacks pigmen- tation due to a decrease in melancyte activity: 201. Vitiligo: An acquired skin disease characterized by white patches that are caused by a loss of pigment in a number of melanin cells: 202. Post inflammatory hyperpigmentation (pih): Disorder that results from trau- ma to tissues from acne, burns, injury, or some skin rashes. Creates darkened patches that are irregular in shape and appear anywhere inflammation occurred: 203. Chloasma or Melasma: A common disorder in pregnant women which results in increased pigmentation on the face: 204. Erythema: Redness of the skin caused by dilation or congestion of the capil- laries: 205. Bromidrosis: Foul smelling perspiration caused by yeast: 206. Anhidrosis: Lack of perspiration caused by failure of sweat glands: 207. Pink eye: Bacterial conjunctivitis: 208. Herpes simplex: Highly contagious viral infection that lies dormant between outbreaks: 209. Keratoma: rare, benign tumor of the keratin or horn-producing cells. These cells usually form the hard, water-resistant hoof capsule that encloses and protects the sensitive structures in the foot. The cells that produce the wall are located at the top of the hoof wall at the coronary band: 46 210. Catagen phase: Stage where hair begins to destroy itself as it disconnects from the papilla: 211. It removes hair by decomposing the papilla: Not true about chemical depila- tories: 212. Photo-epilation: Not a method of electrolysis: 213. Galvanic method: Hair removal method that destroys hair by using 12- 14 needles to decompose the papilla: 214. Multiple needle method: Galvanic electrolysis is known as: 215. A high level current passed into the needle: Not true about galvanic method: 216. Thermolysis: Involves inserting a single needle into the hair follicle: 217. Wire used is substantially thicker than the electrolysis probe: Not true about Thermolysis: 218. Lupus: An auto-immune disease where the body's immune system is impaired or begins to fight itself: 47 219. Dermis, where it is rooted in the dermal papilla bulb: Hair follicle originates in the: 220. 100, 150: There can be up to _ follicles in one square centimeter of the skin. There can be _ in more sense areas. 221. Capilli: Hair growth on the scalp: 222. Barba: Thick, coarse hair that forms the beard: 223. Cilia: Eyelash hair: 224. Supercilia: Eyebrow hair: 225. Lanugo: Soft, downy hair on the body at birth: 226. Vellus: Thin, soft, unpigmented hair covering the body: 227. Terminal: Thicker, pigmented hair that grows after puberty: 228. Laser treatments: Uses wavelengths of light to penetrate and diminish or destroy hair bulbs: 229. Equal to width of the eye: Space between eyebrows should be: 230. Hirutism: Affects women by causing dark hair to grow in areas of the body where only men usually have hair, such as a beard. Caused by an increase in the hormone androgen: 231. Hypertrichosis: Excessive hair growth that is Genetically determined and can occur anywhere on the body: 232. Emulsion: Mixture of two or more non-mixable (imiscibile) substances, United by an emulsifier: 233. Emulsifiers: Binding substances used to slow down destruction of a product: 234. Cremes and lotions: Most common product types: 235. Emollients: Oils and oil-soluble substances used to condition and soften the skin by providing a protective coating called an occlusive barrier: 50 263. 21: To be an electrology, cosmetology, or esthetics instructor you must be _ years old. 264. Biannually on your birthday: Esthetic licenses expire: 265. 65 years, and 30+ years: A licensee who is _ or older AND has been actively practicing or teaching esthetics for _ may apply for a lifetime license. 266. Triadic: Color scheme that uses 3 colors located on a triangular position on the color wheel: 267. Analogous: Color scheme that uses 3 colors adjacent to each other on the color wheel: 268. Monochromatic: Color scheme that uses the same color in variations through- out the entire design: 269. Chiascuro: Art of arranging light and dark o produce an illusion of 3D shapes: 270. 80% art, 20% science: Makeup is _% art, _% science. 271. 1/3: Area between base of top lashes and crease line is how much of the eye? 272. Width of an eye: Wide set eyes have a space between the eyes greater than_. 273. Complementary: Color scheme that uses colors directly across from each other on the color wheel: 51 274. UVA: Rays most frequently used in tanning booths: 275. Galvanic: Direct current used in electrotherapy: 276. Anaphoresis: Phoresis used in desincristation: 277. Ionotohoresis: What uses cataphoresis to build up or nourish the deeper layers of the epidermis? 278. Acidic: When the electrode held by the Esthetician is positive the reaction on the skin is: 279. Violet Ray: Tesla, a High Frequency Current is also known as: 280. Cause muscle contractions: Faradic Current is used to: 281. Heart shaped face: Face shape that has a wider forehead with a narrow jaw and chin line. Contour along temples: 282. Square face: Usually characterized by a broad, straight forehead and hair line, with a broad jawline. Contour to soften angularity by shading below the cheekbones to reduce width: 283. Pear shaped face: Narrow forehead with a wide jawline. Add width to forehead with hilighting and contour cheekbones. 284. Oblong face shape: Face that tends to be long, narrow and angular. Contour under chin, and horizontally at hairline and temples: 285. Round face shape: Circular face shape. Often called full face. Contouring down from the cheekbone to lower portion of the face. 286. Benefits: Results ingredients promise are called: 287. Creme mask: What type of masks are ideal for dry skin? 288. Modeling mask: What type of mask seals the skin, locking in moisture and creating a firm, taught feeling after removal? 289. Couperose: Skin that displays fine dilated capillaries is: 52 290. Desincrustation solution: Highly alkaline solution that liquifies sebum: 291. EMDA: The agency that has established procedural guidelines for the safety of the use of AHAs for chemical peels is: 292. FTC: Who regulates the promotion of advertising of cosmetics and many other products? 293. Synapses: Junctions across which nerve impulses pass: 294. Dendrites: Short fibers extending from the nerve cell: 295. Sensory nerves: Afferent nerves that carry messages to the brain and spinal cord: 296. Motor nerves: Efferent nerves that carry messages from the brain to the muscles: 297. Facial nerve: Chief motor nerve of the face. Motion of the facade, scalp, palate and tongue: 298. Accessory nerve: Controls motion of neck muscles: 55 327. Cerebellum: Regulates motor function known as the little brain because of its location: 328. Kidneys: Receive urea from the liver and then passes it through nephrons: 329. Nephrons: Filters out waste products and water: 330. Pharynx: Passage to the stomach and lungs: Esthetician Written Exam Practice Test 1 & 2 Questions 1. Which of the following terms defines the study of maintaining and improving the skin? Select one: a. onychology b. esthetics c. ethical conduct d. personal hygiene: ✓✓✓ Esthetics is the study of maintaining and improving the skin. 2. How many hours of sleep do most people need to function properly? Select one: a. 1 to 2 hours b. 3 to 4 hours c. 6 to 8 hours 56 d. 9 to 12 hours: ✓✓✓Most people need 6 to 8 hours of sleep or they become fatigued and cannot function properly. 3. The energy contained in food is measured in: Select one: a. calories b. degrees c. fat content 1 / 20 57 d. protein content: ✓✓✓The energy contained in food is measured in calories. 4. Keeping the abdomen flat, the chin level and the head up are key points in having: Select one: a.bad posture b.good posture c.potential injuries d.a poor standing position: ✓✓✓Keeping your head up, chin level and abdomen flat are key points in having good posture. 5. Bacteria that are harmless and can even be beneficial are called: Select one: a.toxins b.viruses c.pathogenic d.nonpathogenic: ✓✓✓Nonpathogenic bacteria are harmless and can even be benefi- cial. 6. Bacterial cells that cause infection and diseases are: Select one: a.nontoxic b.vegetative 2 / 20 60 and bacterial infections is that viruses are not treatable with antibiotics, while bacterial infections can generally be treated with appropriate antibiotics. 12. What is a highly infectious disease that infects the liver? Select one: a.polio b.yellow fever c.Human Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) d.Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS): Human Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is a highly infectious disease that infects the liver. 13. An infection that is located in a small, confined area is known as a: Select one: a.local infection b.general infection c.contagious infection d.symptomatic infection: An infection that is located in a small, confined area is known as a local infection. 14. Efforts to prevent the spread of communicable diseases is described as: Select one: a.immunity b.cleaning c.infection control 61 d.Safety Data Sheets (SDS): Efforts to prevent the spread of communicable dis- eases is described as infection control. 15. Virucidals are disinfectants used to kill: Select one: a.fungi b.viruses c.pseudomonas d.harmful bacteria: Virucidals are disinfectants used to kill viruses. 16. The regulatory agency under the U.S. Department of Labor that enforces safety and health standards in the workplace is: Select one: a.EPA b.SDS c.NIOSH d.OSHA: OSHA is the agency under the U.S. Department of Labor that enforces safety and health standards in the workplace. 17. Key product information-such as toxicology, first-aid, firefighting mea- sures and ecological information-is provided by the: 62 Select one: a.SDS b.DNR c.EPA d.USDA: The SDS provides key information on products regarding toxicology, first-aid, firefighting measures and ecological information. 18. Examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) include all of the follow- ing EXCEPT: Select one: a.apron b.towels c.face masks d.safety glasses: Examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) include gloves, apron, face masks and safety glasses. 19. What is the foundation of infection control efforts and the number one thing you can do to protect yourself and your clients? Select one: a.using antiseptics b.basic handwashing c.sterilizing multi-use supplies d.cleaning and disinfecting your tools: The foundation of infection control efforts and the number one thing you can do to protect yourself and your clients is basic handwashing. 20. Which type of light can kill bacteria that cause skin infections? Select one: 65 Select one: a.upsell b.full book c.prebook d.target market: If all of your appointment times have been scheduled with clients for a given day or week, you have a full book 26. A client retention strategy in which clients reserve a future appointment before leaving the salon/spa during their current visit is called: Select one: a.referral b.upselling c.retention d.prebooking 66 Feedback: A client retention strategy in which clients reserve a future appointment before leaving the salon/spa during their current visit is called prebooking. 27. What is considered the best form of advertising? Select one: a.print ads b.direct mail c.social media d.word of mouth: Word of mouth is considered the best form of advertising. 28. Features of a product are its characteristics, which might include: Select one: a.renewing effect b.size of container c.perfect for traveling d.economical purchase: Features of a product are its characteristics, which might include the size of the container. 29. Benefits of a product are all about: Select one: a. "why it helps" b. "when it works" c. "what it will do" d. "where it is sold": Benefits of a product are all about "what it will do." 30. Services regulated by a cosmetology board or local laws are considered: Select one: 67 a.in-scope b.out-of-scope c.post-operative d.surgical procedures: Services regulated by a cosmetology board or local laws are considered in-scope. 31. Surgery to improve the signs of aging in the face, also called a facelift, is: Select one: a.liposuction b.rhinoplasty c.rhytidectomy d.blepharoplasty: Surgery to improve the signs of aging in the face, also called a facelift, is rhytidectomy. 32. The removal of excess fat deposits in specific areas of the body with the use of a cannula inserted under the skin is known as: Select one: a.liposuction 70 d.consultation record: Any contra-actions noticed during the treatment are includ- ed on the consultation record. 38. "Is there anything that could have made your experience better?" is an example of a question you might ask a client on a follow-up call to determine: Select one: a.consent b.rapport c.credibility d.satisfaction: "Is there anything that could have made your experience better?" is an example of a question you might ask a client on a follow-up call to determine satisfaction. 39. The body system that sends and receives body messages is called the: Select one: a.nervous system b.excretory system c.endocrine system d.reproductive system: The body system that sends and receives body messages is called the nervous system. 40. The epidermis is composed of how many layers? Select one: a.1 b.3 c.5 d.7: The epidermis is composed of 5 layers. 71 41. The acid mantle keeps the surface of the skin slightly acidic, which helps: Select one: a.allow bacteria to enter the body b.prevent bacteria from entering the body c.create a shock absorber to protect the bones d.act as an emergency reservoir of food and water: The acid mantle keeps the surface of the skin slightly acidic, which helps prevent bacteria from entering the body. 42. The arrector pilli muscle causes: Select one: a.faster hair growth b.slower hair growth c.the hair to stand on end d.the hair to lay flat and close to the head: The arrector pilli muscle causes the hair to stand on end. 72 43. The muscles that create movement based on intentional desire are: Select one: a.cardiac b.striated (voluntary) c.involuntary d.non-striated: Striated or voluntary muscles create movement based on intention- al desire. 44. In general, muscles affected by massage are massaged from the: Select one: a.insertion to belly b.belly to insertion c.insertion to origin d.origin to insertion: In general, muscles affected by massage are massaged from the insertion to origin 45. Cells that fight bacteria and other foreign substances are called leukocytes or: Select one: a.plasma b.hemoglobin c.red blood cells d.white blood cells: Cells that fight bacteria and other foreign substances are called leukocytes or white blood cells. 46. Which structure of the lymphatic system is responsible for filtering out bacteria and viruses from the lymph fluid? Select one: 75 51. Which of the following is NOT a receptor of sensationin the dermal layer of the skin? Select one: a.mast cells b.Ruffini's corpuscles c.Krause end bulbs d.Meissner's corpuscles: Ruffini's corpuscles, Krause's end bulbs and Meissner's corpuscles are receptors of sensation in the dermal layer of the skin. 52. Which layer of the skin's permeability barrier prevents transepidermal water loss (TEWL)? Select one: a.adipose b.acid mantle c.stratum basale 76 d.stratum lucidum: The acid mantle layer of the skin's permeability barrier prevents transepidermal water loss (TEWL). 53. A clay mask is beneficial for which skin condition? Select one: a.red, dry skin b.wrinkled, dry skin c.oily, acne-prone skin d.swollen, inflamed skin: A clay mask is beneficial for oily, acne-prone skin 54. Comedones, papules and a few pustules describe which grade of acne? Select one: a.Grade 1 b.Grade 2 c.Grade 3 d.Grade 4: Comedones, papules and a few pustules describe Grade 2 acne. 55. Which of the following is an ingredient used to dry, exfoliate and help in killing bacteria? Select one: a.metrogel b.androgen c.vitamin C d.benzoyl peroxide: Benzoyl peroxide is an ingredient used to dry, exfoliate and help in killing bacteria. 56. While reviewing her client's medication list, Naomi noticed her client takes Accutane. What should Naomi do? Select one: 77 a.call 911 b.avoid treatment c.pretend she didn't see it d.proceed with treatment without cautions: If a client is taking Accutane, avoid treatment 57. During which phase of a facial should the products used be incorporated into the client's home-care routine? Select one: a.Balance b.Decrease c.Increase d.Hydration: Products used in the Decrease phase should be incorporated into the client's home-care routine. 80 Select one: a.Grade 1 b.Grade 2 c.Grade 1/2 d.Grade 3/4: Grade 3/4 of acne would require a physician's consent prior to servic- ing the client. 64. Which of the following actions is a recommended guideline for an acne facial treatment? Select one: a.extract papules b.do not try to extract papules c.use mechanical exfoliation on inflamed acne d.do not use anti-bacterial products after extractions: A recommended guide- line for an acne facial treatment is do not try to extract papules 65. How often should a client return to the salon/spa for a facial treatment for healthy skin maintenance and stress reduction? Select one: a.every 2 weeks b.every 4 weeks c.every 2 months d.every 4 months: A client should return to the salon/spa every 4 weeks for a facial treatment for healthy skin maintenance and stress reduction. 66. Toners are primarily used for: Select one: 81 a.firming b.dehydration c.pH balancing and hydration d.moisturizing and softening: Toners are primarily used for pH balancing and hydration. 67. All of the following cleaning and disinfection guidelines are true about fan brushes EXCEPT: Select one: a.rinse well b.clean with acetone c.pre-clean with soap and water d.immerse in an approved EPA-registered disinfectant solution: Fan brushes are pre-cleaned with soap and water, rinsed well and then immersed in an approved EPA-registered disinfectant solution. 82 68. Store disinfected tools and multi-use supplies in a: Select one: a.dry, open container b.wet, covered container c.clean, wet, open container d.clean, dry, covered container: Store disinfected tools and multi-use supplies in a clean, dry, covered container. 69. A loupe is a piece of facial treatment equipment also known as a: Select one: a.steamer b.Wood's lamp c.magnifying lamp d.hot towel cabinet: A loupe is a piece of facial treatment equipment also known as a magnifying lamp. 70. When performing a pre-cleanse, remove the makeup starting at the upper chest and work: Select one: a.upward b.downward c.side to side d.in a circular pattern: When performing a pre-cleanse, remove the makeup start- ing at the upper chest and work upward. 71. All of the following are benefits of massage EXCEPT: Select one: 85 d.saturate with baking soda then place in the trash: The proper way to dispose of unused chemical exfoliants is to saturate with baking soda then place in the trash. 76. Beneficial effects of direct high frequency include all of the following examples EXCEPT: Select one: a.induces relaxation b.stimulates surface tissue c.reduces inflammation after hair removal d.helps heal existing papules and pustules Feedback: Beneficial effects of direct high frequency include stimulates surface tissue, reduces inflammation after hair removal and helps heal existing papules and pustules. 77. Which electrode is held by a client to create a circuit? Select one: a.mushroom electrode b.sparking electrode c.grounding bar electrode 86 d.grounding pad electrode: A grounding bar electrode is held by a client to create a circuit. 78. How should facial treatment device equipment be disinfected? Select one: a.clean with soap and water b.wipe with clean damp towel c.immerse in approved EPA-registered disinfectant solution d.wipe down with an approved EPA-registered disinfectant spray or wipe- : Equipment is disinfected by wiping it down with an approved EPA- registered disinfectant spray or wipe 79. Shondra is performing sparking on an area of extraction. As she uses rapid up-and-down movements, how far should she lift the electrode from the skin? Select one: a. 0.1" (2 mm) b. 0.3" (7 mm) c. 0.5" (12 mm) d. 0.7" (17 mm): When performing sparking on an area of extraction, lift the electrode 0.3" (7 mm) from the skin using rapid up-and-down movements. 80. All of the following medical conditions are contraindicated against elec- trotherapy devices EXCEPT: 87 Select one: a.pregnancy b.hormone issues c.loss of skin sensation d.plates or pins inside body: Pregnancy, loss of skin sensation and plates or pins inside body are contraindicated against electrotherapy devices. 81. When analyzing the skin, the distance the magnifying lamp is placed over the face may vary based on all of the following factors EXCEPT: Select one: a.your eye color b.client's skin c.your eye sight d.strength of magnification: When analyzing the skin, the distance of the magni- fying lamp will vary depending on strength of magnification, client's skin and your eye sight. 90 87. All of the following conditions are common bacterial infections an estheti- cian might see EXCEPT: Select one: a.stye b.impetigo c.tinea corporis d.blepharitis: Common bacterial infections an esthetician might see are styes, cellulitis, impetigo, boils, bacterial conjunctivitis and blepharitis. 88. Medications an esthetician needs to be aware of before a waxing service include all of the following examples EXCEPT: Select one: a. itamins b.antibiotics c.blood thinners d.antidepressants: It is important for the esthetician to be aware of medications a client is taking prior to a waxing service; these include antibiotics, blood thinners and antidepressants. 89. A tip for preventing ingrown hair is to remove the wax/strip by pulling: Select one: a.upward b. in a jerky motion c.parallel, close to skin 91 d.always toward the esthetician: A tip for preventing ingrown hair is to remove the wax/strip by pulling parallel and close to the skin (not up), and as quickly and smoothly as possible. 90. Why would a body scrub be used prior to a body wrap or cellulite treat- ment? Select one: a.decrease product absorption b.increase cellulite appearance c. increase treatment effectiveness d.decrease treatment effectiveness: A body scrub can be used prior to a body wrap or cellulite treatment to increase treatment effectiveness. 91. What are the two types of application methods for a sunless tanning treatment? Select one: a.scrub and wrap b.scrub and mask c.dry-brush and loofahs 92 d.spray and hand-applied lotion: Two types of application methods for a sunless tanning treatment are spray and hand-applied lotion. 92. Absorption and compaction are the principles that create temporary firm- ness in which type of body wrapping? Select one: a.general wrapping b.compression wrapping c.decompression wrapping d.cellulite wrapping: Absorption and compaction are the principals that create temporary firmness in compression wrapping. 93. To accommodate male clients, in which direction should an esthetician work to avoid tangling the hair? Select one: a.upward b.sideways c.downward d.horizontally: To accommodate male clients, an esthetician should work in down- ward strokes to avoid tangling the hair. 94. Which of the following conditions is NOT a contraindication for performing a body treatment? Select one: a.cancer b.HIV/AIDS c.infestations