WITS PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS With 100% Correct Answers Latest Updates 2024.GUARANTEED SUCC, Exams of Nursing

Download WITS PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS With 100% Correct Answers Latest Updates 2024.GUARANTEED SUCC and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! P a g e 0 | 44 WITS PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS With 100% Correct Answers Latest Updates 2024.GUARANTEED SUCCESS.GRADE A+ 1. During the initial consultation with a client you discover they regularly smoke. This type of risk factor falls into which category? (p. 5) A) Inherited B) Environmental Behavioral D) Biological: Behavioral 2. When discussing the FITT principle, how often an activity is done refers to: (p. 6) A) Frequency B) Intensity C) Time D) Type: Frequency 3. The degree of effort required to expend energy and is influenced by cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF) or maximal aerobic power is: (p.6) A) Absolute intensity B) Relative intensity C) Moderate intensity D) Vigorous intensity: Relative intensity 4. You are establishing a strength training routine for your new client according to the ACSM/AHA guidelines. What would you recommend? (p. 10) A) Perform 3-4 exercises for the major muscle groups 1 / 34 B) Select a resistance that produces muscular fatigue after 5-7 repetitions C) 4-5 sets are needed to be sufficient D) Participate in resistance training activities at least two non-consecutive days per week: Participate in resistance training activities at least two non-consecutive days per week 5. According to current ACSM/AHA physical activity guidelines when designing a program for your client you should encourage them to perform: (p.9) A) 30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity 5 days per week B) 30 minutes of vigorous activity 2 days per week C) 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity 4 days per week D) 10 minutes of vigorous activity 3 days per week: 30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity 5 days per week 6. Muscular strength and endurance, CRF, flexibility and body composition refers to: (p.6) A) Health related fitness B) Skill related fitness C) Physical fitness D) Exercise fitness: Health related fitness 7. What is the leading cause of death in the USA? (p. 5) A) Cancers B) Heart disease C) Strokes D) Accidents: Heart disease 8. Health, fitness, and performance are three distinct goals with separate activity recommendations. You are establishing goals for your client who falls into the performance category. How many days a week should they train? (p.4) 4 / 34 16. Upon reviewing your potential clients health history you find the he has been taking medicine for high cholesterol but did not indicate he had high cholesterol. He states because of the medication he does not have high cholesterol. What is the next step? A) Ask him to obtain medical clearance B) Have him redo the HSQ C) Note that he has a risk factor of high cholesterol D) Have him redo the PAR-Q+: Note that he has a risk factor of high cholesterol 17. The HIPPA act of 1996 allows for which of the following? A) Ability to discuss private health information over the phone in a public area B) Ability to share clients information with other clients C) protection of trainers from lawsuits D) Protection of clients' privacy and rights: Protection of clients' privacy and rights 18. Your potential clients has indicated they are current regular exercisers and have signs indicative of renal disease. What is the next step? A) Require medical clearance B) Administer fitness assessments C) Setup exercise prescription D) Let them continue with their current exercise routine: Require medical clearance 19. According to the Risk Factor Stratification an asymptomatic female with e 2 risk factors falls into which category? A) No risk B) Low risk C) Moderate risk D) High risk: Moderate risk 20. The results of your clients fitness test should be compared with: A) Normative data based on clients age and gender B) Normative data based on clients height and weight 5 / 34 C) Normative data based on clients age and weight D) Normative data based on clients gender and height: Normative data based on clients age and gender 21. ACSM/AHA recommends preactivity screening of participants prior to exercise because it" A) Helps you decide if you want them as a client B) Provides a forum for building rapport and trust C) Allows the client to view what the gym has to offer D) Helps the client decide if they need an exercise routine: Provides a forum for building rapport and trust 22. Your potential client refuses to fill out the PAR-Q+ or the HSQ. What is your next course of action? A) Tell them you will be unable to be their trainer B) Inform them of the benefits of screening C) Offer them a modified exercise program they can do on their ownD) Seek out the advice of a lawyer: Inform them the benefits of screening 23. Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? A) Men e 35 B) Women d 55 C) BMI e 30 D) Hypertension e 130/80: BMI e 30 24. The first step in evaluating health status using MR. PLEASE is to determine if the individual is currently participating in regular exercise. What constitutes regular exercise? A) At least 30 minutes a day for 3 or more days a week B) Intensity of 25-30% of VO2R C) Any type of exercise for the past 2 months D) Cardiovascular exercise for 20 minutes a day at least twice a week: At least 30 minutes a day for 3 or more days a week 6 / 34 25. Your exercise prescription for your client involves oblique twists. Which anatomical plane do these occur in? A) Frontal B) Transverse C) Sagittal D) Coronal: Transverse 26. How many bones are in the human body? A) 150 B) 200 C) 250 D) 300: 200 27. Your client has broken a short bone. Which bone have they broken? A) Ankle B) Vertebrae C) Scapulae D) Rib: Ankle 28. The periosteum is a fibrous membrane that covers the entire long bone. It serves as: A) Attachment for muscles B) Articulation with the other bones C) Provides strength for bones D) Provides smooth movement: Attachment for muscles 29. The replacement of cartilage by bones which occurs during growth and maturation is: A) Osteosarcoma B) Osteoporosis C) Osteocvte D) Ossification: Ossification 30. What is the shaft of a bone known as? 9 / 34 40. Which of the following terms refers to stimulation of one or more motor units to produce movement? A) Recruitment B) Torque C) Stability D) Motor neuron: Recruitment 41. Your client displays the ability to maintain a balanced position after a disruption of their equilibrium. This is called: A) Torque B) Rotational inertia C) Angular momentum D) Stability: Stability 42. To avoid straining the knee ligaments what is the maximum squat depth that is recommended? A) 30° B) 45° C) 60° D) 90°: 90° 43. Abduction and adduction occur around which axis? A) Longitudinal B) Anteroposterior C) Mediolateral D) Transverse: Anteroposterior 44. Which term refers to immovable joints? A) Synarthrodial B) Amphiarthrodial C) Diarthrodial 10 / 34 D) Syndesmosis: Synarthrodial 45. Which term refers to a band of tough inelastic fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone? A) Fascicles B) Epimysium C) Perimysium D) Tendon: Tendon 46. The anaerobic energy system: A) Is used to produce energy for short term and high intensity activities and requires oxygen B) Is fueled by proteins and fats C) Is used to produce energy for short term and high intensity activities and requires no oxygen D) Is used as the predominant energy pathway in endurance activities: Is used to produce energy for short term and high intensity activities and requires no oxygen 47. Cells use which of the following as the primary energy source for biological work? A) Oxygen B) Adenosine triphosphate C) Lactic acid D) Adenosine diphosphate: Adenosine triphosphate 48. Which of the following refers to the fundamental units of muscle contraction? A) Muscle fiber B) Myofibrils C) MItochondria D) Sarcomere: Sarcomere 49. How long can phosphocreatine last for during all out activity? A) 1-2 seconds B) 3-5 seconds 11 / 34 C) 6-10 seconds D) 20 seconds: 3-5 seconds 50. According to the sliding filament theory which filaments are the ones that slide pulling the Z lines? A) Actin B) Myosin C) Myofibril D) Sarcomere: Actin 51. Type I fibers are: A) Fast and resist fatigue B) Slow and resist fatigue C) Fast and easily fatigue D) Slow and easily fatigue: Slow and resist fatigue 52. Oxygen Consumption (V02) during exercise is measured by which of the following equations? A) VO2 = volume VCO2 exhaled - volume O2 inhaled B) VO2 = volume VCO2 inhaled - volume O2 exhaled C) VO2 = volume O2 exhaled - volume O2 inhaled D) VO2 = volume O2 inhaled - volume O2 exhaled: VO2 = volume O2 inhaled - volume O2 exhaled 53. The greatest amount of oxygen the body can take in and utilize during exercise is: A) VO2 max B) Stroke volume C) Cardiac output D) Cardio endurance: VO2 max 54. The body loses heat by four different processes. Which of the following term refers to the process where a person sits on a cold marble bench and loses body heat? A) Convection B) Conduction 14 / 34 C) Water D) Fat: Fat 65. This type of fat comes primarily from animal sources? A) Trans fat B) Saturated fat C) Polyunsaturated fat D) Monounsaturated fat: Saturated fat 66. Which macro nutrient is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen? A) Fat B) Carbohydrate C) Protein D) Iron: Protein 67. Your client is an endurance athlete how much protein intake should you suggest? A) 1.2 -1.4g per kg of body weight B) 1.5 - 2.0g per kg of body weight C) 1.0 -1.2g per kg of body weight D) 2.0 - 2.5g per kg of body weight: 1.2 -1.4g per kg of body weight 68. Which mineral if under consumed can lead to anemia? A) Sodium B) Iron C) Calcium D) Folic acid: Iron 69. Which term refers to athlete maximizing glycogen storage before a competition? A) Carbohydrate loading B) Athlete Triad 15 / 34 C) Ergogenic aiding D) Fluid replacement: Carbohydrate loading 70. Your client is a 34 year old female. She has been working with you for over a year and swims competitively. You suspect she may be suffering from the female athlete triad. What does this consist of? A) Over training, lack of sleep and amenorrhea B) Lack of menstrual period, anemic, and binge eating C) Osteoporosis, lack of sleeping and over training. D) Osteoporosis, disordered eating and amenorrhea: Osteoporosis, disordered eating, and amenorrhea 71. Which term is used in nutrition to indicate that the nutrient cannot be manufactured by the body and must be ingested daily? A) Complete B) Essential C) Necessary D) Whole: Essential 72. Carbohydrates can be divided into which three categories? A) Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides B) Lactose, sucrose and fructose C) Disaccarides, monosaccharides and triglycerides D) Glucose, fructose and surcrose: Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides 73. When discussing the dietary guidelines with your clients what should you recommend in terms of sodium intake per day? A) Less than 1200 mg per day B) Less than 1500 mg per day C) Less than 2000 mg per day D) Less than 2300 mg per day: Less than 2300 mg per day 16 / 34 74. The intake of which type of fatty acid should be as low as possible due to their link with negative health outcomes? A) Monounsaturated B) Trans fat C) Polyunsaturated D) Saturated: Trans fat 75. Which of the following groups of vitamins are fat- soluble? A) A, C, E and, K B) A, B, and K C) A, D, E, and K D) B and C: A, D, E, and K 76. Water makes up what percentage of body weight? A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80%: 60% 77. What does the body use calcium for? A) Make hemoglobin B) Regulate body temperature C) Catalyze reactions D) Cardiac and skeletal muscle function: Cardiac and skeletal muscle function 78. Which term refers to the primary storage form of fat in the body? A) Triglycerides B) Phospholipids C) Lipoproteins D) Trans fat: Triglycerides 19 / 34 B) Creeping obesity C) Obesity D) Over weight: Creeping obesity 89. Which statement is true of resting metabolic rate (RMR)? A) RMR increases with age B) RMR is 20-30% of the daily caloric need C) RMR is not sex specific D) RMR is proportional to body size: RMR is proportional to body size 90. What is the percentage of adults classified as obese in the US? A) 15.4% B) 26.8% C) 34.9% D) 45.9%: 34.9% 91. Which term refers to when less energy is consumed than expended? A) Negative caloric balance B) Thermic effect C) Daily caloric need D) Resting metabolic rate: Negative caloric balance 92. Which term refers to how much of an effect results from a change in dose? A) Slope B) Maximal effect C) Potency D) Variability: Slope 93. Your client notices that after working out with you their gains are made continuously over time. This is known as a/an: 20 / 34 A) Acute response B) Rapid response C) Linear response D) Delayed response: Linear response 94. Target heart rate relates to which part of the FITT principle? A) Intensity B) Type C) Time D) Frequency: Intensity 95. Aerobic versus Anaerobic relates to which part of the FITT principle? A) Time B) Type C) Frequency D) Intensity: Type 96. A variety of physiological responses occur when an individual begins an exercise program. Which two physiological responses are most immediate? A) Blood pressure and insulin sensitivity B) VO2 max and resting heart rate C) Serum lipid changes and increases in HDL D) Resting heart rate and decreases in HDL: Blood pressure and insulin sensitivity 97. How is the percentage of heart rate reserve (HRR) calculated? A) Add resting HR to maximal HR B) Subtract THR from maximal HR C) Add THR to maximal HR D) Subtract resting HR from maximal HR: Subtract resting HR from maximal HR 98. When determining your clients target heart rate. Which is considered the most direct method? A) HRR method 21 / 34 B) % HR max method C) Maximal GXT method D) Rate of perceived exertion method: Maximal GXT method 99. Your client is a 46 year old typical healthy male. What is the optimal intensity threshold? A) 75- 90% of HR Max B) 60-80% of HR Max C) 75-90% of VO2 Max D) 60-80% of RHR: 75-90% of HR Max 100. What can the rate of perceived exertion (RPE) can be as? A) Indicator of duration B) Indicator of intensity C) Indicator of type D) Indicator of frequency: Indicator of intensity 101. The Tanaka formula for maximal heart rate (MHR) is: A) HR = 220 - Age B) HR = 208 x 8 C) HR = 207 - (0.8 x Age) D) HR = 208 - (0.7 x Age): HR = 208 - (0.7 x Age) 102. Your client is travelling and has to spend 2 weeks training in a high altitude location. In order for them to stay within their THR range what is your recommendation? A) They decrease the intensity of their exercise B) They increase the intensity of their exercise C) They increase the frequency of their exercise D) They decrease the frequency of their exercise: They decrease the intensity of their exercise 103. Exercising for 7-14 days in the heat to increase the capacity to sweat is known as: A) Assimilation 24 / 34 112. Which of the following refers to systematic variation in a resistance training program? A) Repetition velocity B) Strength endurance continuum C) Periodization D) Training Frequency: Periodization 113. You have your client do a set of chest presses to volitional fatigue and then immediately have them do a set of flies. This type of resistance training system is known as: A) Single set system B) Multiple set system C) Circuit training system D) Pre-exhaustion system: Pre-exhaustion system 114. Which statement is true about training children? A) No one under the age of 16 should participate in strength training B) May help reduce the risk of sports related injury C) Perform at least 20 repetitions per exercise D) Focus should be on the weight load not on the technique: May help reduce the risk of sports related injury 115. Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity coupled with inadequate rest and recovery are characteristics of which of the following? A) Over training B) Over frequency C) Over reaching D) Over load: Over training 116. Your client has stopped training and their muscular strength has regressed towards their pre exercise levels. Which principle does this refer to? A) Principle of progression B) Principle of overload C) Principle of regularity 25 / 34 D) Principle of reversibility: Principle of reversibility 117. Which principle states that to make continual gains in muscular fitness resistance training must be performed regularly? A) Principle of regularity B) Principle of overload C) Principle of progression D) Principle of specificity: Principle of regularity 118. Which RM load has the greatest effect on developing local muscular endurance? A) 6 or less B) 8-10 C) 15-20 D) 25 or more: 15-20 119. Which training system has the client performing a series of different exercises with little rest between each exercise performed? A) Multiple- Set B) Circuit training C) Assisted training D) Pre-exhaustion: Circuit training 120. You assist your client in a hamstring stretch by gently pressing the leg into a stretch, as your client is totally relaxed. What type of stretching is this called? A) Dynamic B) Active C) Passive D) Ballistic: Passive 121. This type of stretching involves using velocity and a fast bouncy movement to stretch the muscle. A) Passive B) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation 26 / 34 C) Dynamic D) Ballistic: Ballistic 122. Tightness in the hip flexors can increase the: A) Lordotic curve B) Kyphotic curve C) Functional curve D) Structural curve: Lordotic curve 123. Your client spends many hours at a desk working on their computer each day. They are at risk for: A) Increase in thoracic kyphosis and increase in the lumbar curve B) Increase in thoracic kyphosis and a decrease in the lumbar curve C) Decrease in the thoracic kyphosis and an increase in the lumbar curveD) Decrease in the thoracic kyphosis and in the lumbar curve: Increase in the thoracic kyphosis and a decrease in the lumbar curve 124. The spine is particularly vulnerable at what time of day? A) Beginning of the day B) Mid day C) End of the day D) All day: Beginning of the day 125. Which term refers to the ability to control the forces across the spine and pelvic girdle while protecting the integrity of the spinal structures? A) Functional movement B) Core Stability C) Periodization D) Torque: Core stability 126. You are creating a stretching routine for you 15 year old client who plays lacrosse. According to the ASCM guidelines what should you recommend? 29 / 34 C) 70% D) 80%: 80% 136. VO2 Max decrease at a rate of how much per year in healthy men and woman after the age of 20? A) 1% B) 5% C) 8% D) 10%: 1% 137. When designing an exercise prescription for an older adult client what should be recommended if they are extremely deconditioned? A) Begin with an intensity of 60% 1 RM B) Duration should be divided into 5-10 minute segments C) 7-8 RPE on a 10 point scale D) Each set should involve no more that 5-7 repetitions: Duration should be divided into 5-10 minute segments 138. Displacing the center of mass is a way to work on balance. According to the progression of difficulty which one would you start with when working with an older client? A) Shift Weight side to side B) Step over obstacles C) Turn in a circle D) Sideways walking: Turn in a circle 139. Which of the following is a potential problem of exercising during pregnancy? A) Heat dissipation B) Hypoxemia C) Rhabdomyolysis D) Hyperglycemia: Heat Dissipation 140. The most at risk for osteoporsis is: 30 / 34 A) Older woman of African American descent B) Older woman of Caucasian and Asian descent C) All ages of Asian and African American descent D) All ages of women of Caucasian descent: Older woman of Caucasian and Asian descent 141. What type of exercise should people diagnosed with osteoporosis avoid? A) Tai chi B) Palates C) Plyometrics D) Resistance training: Plyometrics 142. What is the most common site for osteoporotic fractures? A) Wrist, ankle, and clavicle B) Hip, humerus, and vertebrae C) Ankle, hip and radius D) Hip, vertebrae, and wrist: Hip, vertebrae and wrist 143. Your client is in her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following do you recommend she avoid? A) Prone position B) Valsalva Maneuver C) Kegel exercise D) Resistance training: Valsalva Maneuver 144. The most rapid loss of bone mineral density occurs in women during: A) Menopause B) Puberty C) Child birth 31 / 34 D) Pregnancy: Menopause 145. What percentage of adolescent girls achieve the recommended levels for calcium intake? A) 10% B) 25% C) 40% D) 58%: 10% 146. ACSM recommends which of the following when working with children and adolescents to aid in increased bone density? A) Frequency: at least 2 days per week B) Intensity: high-loading forces in jumping C) Time: 40 minutes once per day D) Type: aerobics and no resistance training: Intensity: high-loading forces in jumping 147. Which term refers to a disease characterized by a decrease in the total amount of bone mineral and a decrease in the strength of the remaining bone? A) Osteoporosis B) Osteopenia C) Ossification D) Osteoarthritis: Osteoporsis 148. Your client is past the acute phase of a cardiac rehabilitation program. What is their recommended rate of perceived exertion on a 20 point scale when performing aerobic exercise? A) 3-7 B) 8-10 C) 12-16 D) 17-20: 12-16 149. Which medication is known to influence submaximal and maximal HR and have a profound effect on exercise prescription? 34 / 34 D) >40% for men and women: >38% for women and > 25% for men 159. Your client has been classified as obese. One of the safety issues is that you need to address is thermo regulation. What would your recommendation be? A) Limit resistance training B) Avoid aerobic exercise targeting large muscle groups C) Work out during the cooler times of the day D) Limit intensity to less than 40% of HRR: Work out during the cooler times of the day 160. Which of the following is a healthy weight loss goal for clients who are overweight and obese? A) 0.5- 1.0 kg per week B) 1.0-1.5 kg per week C) 1.5-2.0 kg per week D) 2.0-2.5 kg per week: 0.5- 1.0 kg per week 161. In order to avoid orthopedic injuries with your obese client you recommend which of the following? A) Intensity of no more than 35% B) Water aerobics C) Avoid resistance training D) 4-5 days of flexibility training: Water aerobics 162. What percentage of American childen are obese? A) 9.8% B) 17.3% C) 25.6% D) 43.9%: 17.3% 163. ACSM recommends which of the following as approach to exercise for weight loss? A) Frequency: 2-3 days a week B) Intensity: 35% of HRR C) Time: 30-60 min/day 35 / 34 D) Type: Aerobic exercise only: Time: 30-60 min/day 164. Which stage does the personal trainer market the benefits of exercise and is positive role model? A) Precontemplation B) Contemplation C) Action D) Maintenance: Contemplation 165. Your client has successfully adhered to their workout program for 7 months. They are in which state? A) Precontemplation B) Contemplation C) Action D) Maintenance: Maintenace 166. The confidence in one's ability to engage in a positive behavior or abstain from an undesired behavior is: A) Self- efficacy B) Decisional balance C) Competence D) Relatedness: Self- efficacy 167. Your client is frustrated with working out and is having difficulty expressing why. You help the client to be more specific about their feelings and goals. Which characteristic of an effective helper does this represent? A) Empathy B) Concreteness C) Genuineness D) Confrontation: Concreteness 168. Which of the following is a method used to identify and deal with high-risk situation? A) Relapse prevention 36 / 34 B) Self-monitoring C) Contemplation D) Preparation: Relapse prevention 169. One of the top reasons for stopping an exercise program is lack of time. Which of the following is an important strategy for understanding and overcoming this excuse? A) Behavioral contract B) Self-monitoring C) Assessment D) Reinforcement: Self-monitoring 170. Which strategy involves a written, signed, public agreement to engage in specific goal-directed behaviors? A) Behavioral contract B) Self-monitoring C) Assessment D) Reinforcement: Behavioral contract 171. Which stage in the Trans theoretical Model has the individual intending to take action within the next month and trying to determent what to do next? A) Precontemplation B) Contemplation C) Preparation D) Action: Preparation 172. Which characteristic of effective goal writing states, "Goals should be practical and achievable"? A) Behavioral B) Specific C) Meaningful D) Reasonable: Reasonable 173. You are helping your client write out their fitness goals. You suggest they aim for actions rather than outcomes. Which characteristic is this referring to? 39 / 34 B) Subluxation C) Hypoxemia D) Hematoma: Exertional rhabdomyolysis 183. Your client has torn a tendon. What is this known as? A) Fracture B) Strain C) Laceration D) Sprain: Sprain 184. Which heat related illness can cause organ system failure and is the most serious form of heat- related illness? A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat Syncope C) Heat cramps D) Heat stroke: Heat stroke 185. Which cold related problem is characterized by freezing of deep tissue, including muscle and bone? A) Deep frostbite B) Superficial frostbite C) Mild hypotermia D) Severe hypothermia: Deep frostbite 186. Which wound is characterized by an open wound with jagged edges and exposure of underlying tissues? A) Puncture B) Incision C) Laceration D) Abrasion: Laceration 40 / 34 187. You are training your client outside and are monitoring their fluid loss. You see that they have a water loss of 3-5%. Which of the following is this considered? A) Safe B) Cause for concern C) Serious D) Life threatening: Cause for concern 188. You have your client sign an informed consent before working out. However, for a contract to be valid and legally enforceable it must meet four different elements. Which element states, "The purpose of the contract must be to accomplish a goal that is not against public policy"? A) Agreement B) Consideration C) Contractual capacity D) Legality: Legality 189. Which common cause of injury is defined as something that simply happens as a result of participation- no one is at fault? A) Product liability B) Negligence C) Comparative negligence D) Inherent risk: Inherent risk 190. Which federal law prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities? A) ADA B) HIPPA C) OSHA D) FHA: ADA 191. The plaintiff in a negligence lawsuit has to prove four separate elements. Which element does the plaintiff have to prove that breach of duty was the cause of harm? A) Duty 41 / 34 B) Breach of duty C) Causation D) Harm and damages: Causation 192. Which term refers to practicing within your boundaries of training, education, and certifications? A) Risk management B) Scope of practice C) Informed consent D) Breach of duty: Scope of practice 193. Which document details the potential risks associated with exercise? A) Liability waiver B) Physical activity readiness questionnaire C) Health history questionnaire D) Informed consent form: Informed consent form 194. Which term refers to a proactive administrative process to minimize liability losses? A) Risk management B) Primary assumption of risk C) Informed consent D) Exculpatory clause: Risk management 195. There are three situational factors that dertermine professional standard of care. They are: A) Environmental conditions, scope of practice and participants B) Nature of the activity, the type of participants, and environmental condi-tions C) Type of participants, legal forms, and scope of practice D) Nature of the activity, legal forms, and medical knowledge: Nature of the activity, the type of participants and environmental conditions